Answer: A
Explanation
● Basavanna was a 12th-century philosopher, statesman, and Kannada poet during the
period of the Shiva-focused Bhakti movement.
● Considered to be one of the many great social reformers, Basavanna stood for the
underprivileged classes and women's rights.
● He spread social awareness through his poetry called Vachanaas.
● The renowned reformer rejected all kinds of gender and social discrimination,
superstitions, and rituals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● As the chief minister of his kingdom, he introduced new public institutions such as the
Anubhava Mantapa (or, the “hall of spiritual experience”), which welcomed men and
women from all socio-economic backgrounds to discuss spiritual and mundane questions of
life. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Basavanna is widely considered the founder of the Lingayat sect, which sought to promote
equality and social justice.
Explanation
● Basavanna was a 12th-century philosopher, statesman, and Kannada poet during the
period of the Shiva-focused Bhakti movement.
● Considered to be one of the many great social reformers, Basavanna stood for the
underprivileged classes and women's rights.
● He spread social awareness through his poetry called Vachanaas.
● The renowned reformer rejected all kinds of gender and social discrimination,
superstitions, and rituals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● As the chief minister of his kingdom, he introduced new public institutions such as the
Anubhava Mantapa (or, the “hall of spiritual experience”), which welcomed men and
women from all socio-economic backgrounds to discuss spiritual and mundane questions of
life. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Basavanna is widely considered the founder of the Lingayat sect, which sought to promote
equality and social justice.
4. Consider the following statements about The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
1) The National Clean Air Programme envisages reduction in PM10.
2) National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) is used as a metric to find the non-
attainment cities.
3) City Action Plans for these non-attainment cities are being implemented by the Ministry of
Environment Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
1) The National Clean Air Programme envisages reduction in PM10.
2) National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) is used as a metric to find the non-
attainment cities.
3) City Action Plans for these non-attainment cities are being implemented by the Ministry of
Environment Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
12%
A. Only one
56%
B. Only two
30%
C. All three
2%
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation
● The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of
Environment Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) to tackle the air pollution crisis
in a comprehensive manner.
● NCAP envisages reduction in PM10 level up to 40% or achievement of national
standards (60 microgram/cubic meter) by 2025-26. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● 130 million plus/non-attainment cities (cities exceeding National Ambient Air Quality
Standards (NAAQS), consecutively for five years) have been identified for implementing
mitigation actions under NCAP. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● City Action Plans (CAPs) have been prepared by all 130 cities and are being implemented
by Urban Local Bodies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
● CAPs target city specific air polluting sources like Soil & Road Dust, Vehicles, Domestic Fuel,
Construction Material and Industries, etc.
Explanation
● The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of
Environment Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) to tackle the air pollution crisis
in a comprehensive manner.
● NCAP envisages reduction in PM10 level up to 40% or achievement of national
standards (60 microgram/cubic meter) by 2025-26. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● 130 million plus/non-attainment cities (cities exceeding National Ambient Air Quality
Standards (NAAQS), consecutively for five years) have been identified for implementing
mitigation actions under NCAP. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● City Action Plans (CAPs) have been prepared by all 130 cities and are being implemented
by Urban Local Bodies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
● CAPs target city specific air polluting sources like Soil & Road Dust, Vehicles, Domestic Fuel,
Construction Material and Industries, etc.
5. Consider the following statements about Bharatmala Pariyojana.
1) The project aims at the development of the highways sector.
2) The project has enhanced focus on the North East region of the country.
3) The project emphasises usage of scientific planning for project preparation.
1) The project aims at the development of the highways sector.
2) The project has enhanced focus on the North East region of the country.
3) The project emphasises usage of scientific planning for project preparation.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
A. Only one
30%
B. Only two
62%
C. All three
2%
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on
optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging
critical infrastructure gaps. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● It was launched in 2017.
● All key aspects of the scheme are managed by the Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways.
Highlights of Bharatmala Pariyojana
● Improvement in efficiency of existing corridors through development of Multimodal
Logistics Parks and elimination of choke point;
● Enhance focus on improving connectivity in North East and leveraging synergies with
Inland Waterways; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Emphasis on use of technology & scientific planning for Project Preparation and Asset
Monitoring; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● The government will strive to complete new roads, which will add up to a whopping 34,
800 kms.
Explanation:
● Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on
optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging
critical infrastructure gaps. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● It was launched in 2017.
● All key aspects of the scheme are managed by the Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways.
Highlights of Bharatmala Pariyojana
● Improvement in efficiency of existing corridors through development of Multimodal
Logistics Parks and elimination of choke point;
● Enhance focus on improving connectivity in North East and leveraging synergies with
Inland Waterways; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Emphasis on use of technology & scientific planning for Project Preparation and Asset
Monitoring; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● The government will strive to complete new roads, which will add up to a whopping 34,
800 kms.
1. Consider the following statements.
1) The ratings given by rating agencies have no impact on bonds issued by the government.
2) Moody’s and Fitch are some leading rating agencies.
1) The ratings given by rating agencies have no impact on bonds issued by the government.
2) Moody’s and Fitch are some leading rating agencies.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
A. 1 only
69%
B. 2 only
24%
C. Both 1 and 2
2%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
● At the corporate level, companies planning to issue a security must find a rating agency to rate
their debt. Rating agencies such as Moody’s, S&P Global Ratings, and Fitch perform the rating
service for a fee. Investors rely on the ratings to decide on whether to buy or not to buy a
company’s securities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● At the country level, investors rely on the ratings given by the credit rating agencies to make
investment decisions. Many countries sell their securities in the international market, and a
good credit rating can help them access high-value investors. A favorable rating may also
attract other forms of investments like foreign direct investments to a country.
● A rating downgrade means that bonds issued by the governments are now “riskier” than
before. Lower risk is better because it allows governments and companies of that country to
raise debts at a lower rate of interest. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Explanation:
● At the corporate level, companies planning to issue a security must find a rating agency to rate
their debt. Rating agencies such as Moody’s, S&P Global Ratings, and Fitch perform the rating
service for a fee. Investors rely on the ratings to decide on whether to buy or not to buy a
company’s securities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● At the country level, investors rely on the ratings given by the credit rating agencies to make
investment decisions. Many countries sell their securities in the international market, and a
good credit rating can help them access high-value investors. A favorable rating may also
attract other forms of investments like foreign direct investments to a country.
● A rating downgrade means that bonds issued by the governments are now “riskier” than
before. Lower risk is better because it allows governments and companies of that country to
raise debts at a lower rate of interest. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Consider the following statements about hornbills.
1) They are frugivores.
2) They are called ‘farmers of the forest’.
3) Malabar Pied Hornbill is found only in India.
1) They are frugivores.
2) They are called ‘farmers of the forest’.
3) Malabar Pied Hornbill is found only in India.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
4%
A. 1 only
56%
B. 1 and 2 only
16%
C. 2 and 3 only
24%
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation
● Hornbills are a family of tropical and sub-tropical birds which are found extensively in Africa,
Asia and Melanesia.
● Famously dubbed as the ‘Farmers of the Forest’, these frugivores (fruit-eating birds) help in
seed dispersal of several endemic trees and are important for survival and upkeep of entire
forests. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● In India, 9 subspecies of hornbills are found. They are: The Great Hornbill, Rufous-necked
Hornbill, Wreathed Hornbill, Narcondam Hornbill, Malabar Pied Hornbill, Oriental Pied Hornbill,
White-throated Brown Hornbill, Malabar Grey Hornbill, and the Indian Grey Hornbill.
● Five species are found in the northeastern states of which the Wreathed hornbill, Rufous-
necked hornbill and the White-throated brown hornbill are restricted to this region within India,
although they have a wider distribution in South-east Asia.
● The Narcondam hornbill is found only on Narcondam island (part of the Andaman Islands) in
the Bay of Bengal.
● The Indian grey hornbill occurs in the Indian subcontinent, while the Malabar Pied Hornbill
is found only in India and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
● The Malabar grey hornbill is endemic to the Western Ghats.
Explanation
● Hornbills are a family of tropical and sub-tropical birds which are found extensively in Africa,
Asia and Melanesia.
● Famously dubbed as the ‘Farmers of the Forest’, these frugivores (fruit-eating birds) help in
seed dispersal of several endemic trees and are important for survival and upkeep of entire
forests. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● In India, 9 subspecies of hornbills are found. They are: The Great Hornbill, Rufous-necked
Hornbill, Wreathed Hornbill, Narcondam Hornbill, Malabar Pied Hornbill, Oriental Pied Hornbill,
White-throated Brown Hornbill, Malabar Grey Hornbill, and the Indian Grey Hornbill.
● Five species are found in the northeastern states of which the Wreathed hornbill, Rufous-
necked hornbill and the White-throated brown hornbill are restricted to this region within India,
although they have a wider distribution in South-east Asia.
● The Narcondam hornbill is found only on Narcondam island (part of the Andaman Islands) in
the Bay of Bengal.
● The Indian grey hornbill occurs in the Indian subcontinent, while the Malabar Pied Hornbill
is found only in India and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
● The Malabar grey hornbill is endemic to the Western Ghats.
3. Consider the following statements.
1) Minimum Support Price is currently not available for any Minor Forest Produce.
2) Pradhan Mantri Vanbandhu Vikas Yojana aims to promote entrepreneurship among youths from
Scheduled tribes.
1) Minimum Support Price is currently not available for any Minor Forest Produce.
2) Pradhan Mantri Vanbandhu Vikas Yojana aims to promote entrepreneurship among youths from
Scheduled tribes.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
4%
A. 1 only
66%
B. 2 only
28%
C. Both 1 and 2
2%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation
● Under the Pradhan Mantri Vanbandhu Vikas Yojana, a venture capital fund has been set up to
promote entrepreneurship/start-up projects by ST youth. Hence statement 2 is correct.
○ TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India) supports retail
marketing for livelihood development among tribal communities of India.
● Under the scheme "Mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) through
Minimum Support Price and development of Value chain for MFP" Minimum Support Price
(MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) has been fixed for select MFP. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
○ Minimum Support Price (MSP) is ensured for Minor Forest Produce, and marketing
support for tribal products is provided through the Pradhan Mantri Jan Jatiya Vikas
Mission.
Explanation
● Under the Pradhan Mantri Vanbandhu Vikas Yojana, a venture capital fund has been set up to
promote entrepreneurship/start-up projects by ST youth. Hence statement 2 is correct.
○ TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India) supports retail
marketing for livelihood development among tribal communities of India.
● Under the scheme "Mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) through
Minimum Support Price and development of Value chain for MFP" Minimum Support Price
(MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) has been fixed for select MFP. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
○ Minimum Support Price (MSP) is ensured for Minor Forest Produce, and marketing
support for tribal products is provided through the Pradhan Mantri Jan Jatiya Vikas
Mission.
4. Consider the following statements about the Foreign Trade Policy 2023.
1) Remission and entitlement-based regimes have been adopted for export promotion.
2) The dairy sector is mandated to maintain average export obligations.
3) The special advance authorization scheme has been completely stopped.
1) Remission and entitlement-based regimes have been adopted for export promotion.
2) The dairy sector is mandated to maintain average export obligations.
3) The special advance authorization scheme has been completely stopped.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
43%
A. Only one
39%
B. Only two
17%
C. All three
1%
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation
Key thrust areas
● It has four pillars. These are:
○ replacing the incentive-based system of promoting exports with remission and
entitlement-based regimes; Hence statement 1 is correct.
○ facilitating enhanced collaboration among exporters, states, districts and Indian
missions;
○ reducing transaction costs and introducing e-initiatives for ease in business
operations; and
○ developing additional export hubs.
What are the goals and targets?
● The government aims to increase India’s overall exports to $2 trillion by 2030, with equal
contributions from the merchandise and services sectors.
● The policy will prioritize enhancing the ease of doing business and targets emerging
sectors, such as e-commerce and export hubs.
● Under FTP 2023, the towns of Faridabad, Moradabad, Mirzapur, and Varanasi have been
newly designated as Towns of Export Excellence (TEE) for apparel, handicrafts, handmade
carpets and dari, and handloom and handicraft products, respectively. These additions expand
the TEE list to 43 towns.
● Also, the dairy sector will be exempted from maintaining average export obligations under
the new policy. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
● Further, the special advance authorization scheme has been extended to apparel and
clothing. Under the Advance Authorization Scheme, inputs required for manufacturing
export products can be imported duty-free. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
● The new FTP aims to boost the internationalization of trade in rupees by allowing
international trade settlement in India’s currency.
Explanation
Key thrust areas
● It has four pillars. These are:
○ replacing the incentive-based system of promoting exports with remission and
entitlement-based regimes; Hence statement 1 is correct.
○ facilitating enhanced collaboration among exporters, states, districts and Indian
missions;
○ reducing transaction costs and introducing e-initiatives for ease in business
operations; and
○ developing additional export hubs.
What are the goals and targets?
● The government aims to increase India’s overall exports to $2 trillion by 2030, with equal
contributions from the merchandise and services sectors.
● The policy will prioritize enhancing the ease of doing business and targets emerging
sectors, such as e-commerce and export hubs.
● Under FTP 2023, the towns of Faridabad, Moradabad, Mirzapur, and Varanasi have been
newly designated as Towns of Export Excellence (TEE) for apparel, handicrafts, handmade
carpets and dari, and handloom and handicraft products, respectively. These additions expand
the TEE list to 43 towns.
● Also, the dairy sector will be exempted from maintaining average export obligations under
the new policy. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
● Further, the special advance authorization scheme has been extended to apparel and
clothing. Under the Advance Authorization Scheme, inputs required for manufacturing
export products can be imported duty-free. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
● The new FTP aims to boost the internationalization of trade in rupees by allowing
international trade settlement in India’s currency.
5. Consider the following statements about Debt for climate swap.
1) Debt for climate swap can act as a debt restructuring device.
2) Debt for climate swap can help drive policy action to mitigate the effects of climate change.
3) Small Island Developing States (SIDS) can use debt-for-climate swaps to adapt to increasing
climate risk.
1) Debt for climate swap can act as a debt restructuring device.
2) Debt for climate swap can help drive policy action to mitigate the effects of climate change.
3) Small Island Developing States (SIDS) can use debt-for-climate swaps to adapt to increasing
climate risk.