Answer: C
Explanation:
● Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, Public Authorities are required to make
disclosures on various aspects of their structure and functioning.
○ This includes: (i) disclosure on their organisation, functions, and structure, (ii)
powers and duties of its officers and employees, and (iii) financial information.
● The intent of such suo moto disclosures is that the public should need minimum recourse
through the Act to obtain such information. If such information is not made available,
citizens have the right to request it from the Authorities.
● This may include information in the form of documents, files, or electronic records
under the control of the Public Authority. The intent behind the enactment of the Act is to
promote transparency and accountability in the working of Public Authorities.
Who is included in the ambit of ‘Public Authorities’?
● The RTI Act defines “public authorities” in Section 2(h).
● A “public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self- government
established or constituted
○ by or under the Constitution;
○ by any other law made by Parliament;
○ by any other law made by State Legislature;
○ by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes
any –
○ body owned, controlled or substantially financed;
○ Non-Government organization substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds
provided by the appropriate Government. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
Section 8 of the RTI
● This provides for exemption from disclosure of information that are more valid in
reasons
○ Which would affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic,
scientific or economic interests of the State;
○ Which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal;
○ Which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature;
○ Information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property;
○ Information received in confidence from foreign government;
○ Information which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person; etc.
How is the right to information enforced under the Act?
● The Act has established a three tier structure for enforcing the right to information
guaranteed under the Act.
● Statement B is incorrect: The first request for information goes to the Central/State
Assistant Public Information Officer and Central/State Public Information Officer,
designated by the Public Authorities.
● Statement C is correct: These Officers are required to provide information to an RTI
applicant within 30 days of the request. If information sought concerns the life or liberty
of a person, it shall be supplied within 48 hours.
● Appeals from their decisions go to an Appellate Authority.
● Appeals against the order of the Appellate Authority go to the State Information
Commission or the Central Information Commission. These Information Commissions
consist of a Chief Information Commissioner, and up to 10 Information
Commissioners.
Section 4(2) of the RTI
● It mandates that different authorities and government departments should voluntarily
disclose (suo motu) much information to the public at regular intervals through
various means, including the internet, so that the public have minimum resort to the use of
this Act to obtain information.
Fee
● Statement D is incorrect: There is an application fee that varies for the Centre and for
States.
● For public authorities under the Central Government, this is Rs. 10.
Explanation:
● Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, Public Authorities are required to make
disclosures on various aspects of their structure and functioning.
○ This includes: (i) disclosure on their organisation, functions, and structure, (ii)
powers and duties of its officers and employees, and (iii) financial information.
● The intent of such suo moto disclosures is that the public should need minimum recourse
through the Act to obtain such information. If such information is not made available,
citizens have the right to request it from the Authorities.
● This may include information in the form of documents, files, or electronic records
under the control of the Public Authority. The intent behind the enactment of the Act is to
promote transparency and accountability in the working of Public Authorities.
Who is included in the ambit of ‘Public Authorities’?
● The RTI Act defines “public authorities” in Section 2(h).
● A “public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self- government
established or constituted
○ by or under the Constitution;
○ by any other law made by Parliament;
○ by any other law made by State Legislature;
○ by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes
any –
○ body owned, controlled or substantially financed;
○ Non-Government organization substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds
provided by the appropriate Government. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
Section 8 of the RTI
● This provides for exemption from disclosure of information that are more valid in
reasons
○ Which would affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic,
scientific or economic interests of the State;
○ Which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal;
○ Which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature;
○ Information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property;
○ Information received in confidence from foreign government;
○ Information which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person; etc.
How is the right to information enforced under the Act?
● The Act has established a three tier structure for enforcing the right to information
guaranteed under the Act.
● Statement B is incorrect: The first request for information goes to the Central/State
Assistant Public Information Officer and Central/State Public Information Officer,
designated by the Public Authorities.
● Statement C is correct: These Officers are required to provide information to an RTI
applicant within 30 days of the request. If information sought concerns the life or liberty
of a person, it shall be supplied within 48 hours.
● Appeals from their decisions go to an Appellate Authority.
● Appeals against the order of the Appellate Authority go to the State Information
Commission or the Central Information Commission. These Information Commissions
consist of a Chief Information Commissioner, and up to 10 Information
Commissioners.
Section 4(2) of the RTI
● It mandates that different authorities and government departments should voluntarily
disclose (suo motu) much information to the public at regular intervals through
various means, including the internet, so that the public have minimum resort to the use of
this Act to obtain information.
Fee
● Statement D is incorrect: There is an application fee that varies for the Centre and for
States.
● For public authorities under the Central Government, this is Rs. 10.
1. Consider the following statements regarding judicial custody
1. During judicial custody, the investigating agency has direct access to the accused for
interrogation purposes.
2. The court, while granting judicial custody, decides whether the accused will be held in jail or in police lock-up.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. During judicial custody, the investigating agency has direct access to the accused for
interrogation purposes.
2. The court, while granting judicial custody, decides whether the accused will be held in jail or in police lock-up.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A. 1 only
31%
B. 2 only
44%
C. Both 1 and 2
16%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Quiz link:
https://youtube.com/live/6NoL2X9zmrk?feature=share
General Quiz by Officers IAS Academy(Online).
Date: August 28, 2024
Time: 6:00 PM
Don't miss out on this opportunity to showcase your knowledge and compete with fun! See you at the quiz!
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https://youtube.com/live/6NoL2X9zmrk?feature=share
General Quiz by Officers IAS Academy(Online).
Date: August 28, 2024
Time: 6:00 PM
Don't miss out on this opportunity to showcase your knowledge and compete with fun! See you at the quiz!
Join our WhatsApp channel for upcoming quiz and Events: https://www.whatsapp.com/channel/0029VailiJKHFxOzTmCQHa3M
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Both the statements are incorrect.
● During judicial custody, the accused is held in a jail or prison, and the investigating agency
requires court permission for further interrogation.
● The court does not decide whether the accused will be in a police lock-up, as judicial
custody means the accused is in jail, not in a police lock-up.
Police custody Vs Judicial custody
● When following the receipt of an information/complaint/report by police about a crime, an
officer of police arrests the suspect involved in the crime reported, to prevent him from
committing the offensive acts further, such officer brings that suspect to police station, it's
called Police Custody.
● Police custody is actually the custody of a suspect with the police in the lock up at the
police station, to detain the suspect.
● The officer in charge of the case is required to produce the suspect before the
appropriate judge(magistrate) within 24 hours (these 24 hours exclude the time of
necessary journey from the police station to the court).
● Then the Magistrate can either release him on bail or he can either send him to judicial
custody or to police custody.
○ If the accused is juvenile, his age is to be ascertained and if he finds that he is
juvenile, then he will be directed to be produced before Juvenile Justice Board.
Police custody Judicial custody
Police Custody means that police have the
physical custody of the accused.
Judicial Custody means an accused is in the
custody of the concerned Magistrate.
The accused is lodged in police station lockup. The accused is lodged in the jail.
During this detention, the police officer in
charge of the case may interrogate the
suspect.
During Judicial Custody, the police officer in
charge of the case is not allowed to
interrogate the suspect. However, the court
may allow the interrogations to be conducted if
it opines the interrogation being necessary
under the facts produced before the court.
Police custody may extend only up to a period
of 15 days from the date custody begins.
Judicial custody may extend to a period of 90
days for a crime which entails a punishment of
death, life imprisonment or period of
imprisonment exceeding 10 years and 60 days
for all other crimes if the Magistrate is
convinced that sufficient reasons exists,
following which the accused or suspect must be
released on bail.
Related Constitutional Provision
● The Constitution of India under Article 22 provides for the protection of the arrested
person to the extent that he has a right to be informed of the reason for arrest and he
must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of 24 hours.
● Article 22 (1) also provides that he shall be entitled to consult and to be defended by a
legal practitioner of his choice.
Explanation:
● Both the statements are incorrect.
● During judicial custody, the accused is held in a jail or prison, and the investigating agency
requires court permission for further interrogation.
● The court does not decide whether the accused will be in a police lock-up, as judicial
custody means the accused is in jail, not in a police lock-up.
Police custody Vs Judicial custody
● When following the receipt of an information/complaint/report by police about a crime, an
officer of police arrests the suspect involved in the crime reported, to prevent him from
committing the offensive acts further, such officer brings that suspect to police station, it's
called Police Custody.
● Police custody is actually the custody of a suspect with the police in the lock up at the
police station, to detain the suspect.
● The officer in charge of the case is required to produce the suspect before the
appropriate judge(magistrate) within 24 hours (these 24 hours exclude the time of
necessary journey from the police station to the court).
● Then the Magistrate can either release him on bail or he can either send him to judicial
custody or to police custody.
○ If the accused is juvenile, his age is to be ascertained and if he finds that he is
juvenile, then he will be directed to be produced before Juvenile Justice Board.
Police custody Judicial custody
Police Custody means that police have the
physical custody of the accused.
Judicial Custody means an accused is in the
custody of the concerned Magistrate.
The accused is lodged in police station lockup. The accused is lodged in the jail.
During this detention, the police officer in
charge of the case may interrogate the
suspect.
During Judicial Custody, the police officer in
charge of the case is not allowed to
interrogate the suspect. However, the court
may allow the interrogations to be conducted if
it opines the interrogation being necessary
under the facts produced before the court.
Police custody may extend only up to a period
of 15 days from the date custody begins.
Judicial custody may extend to a period of 90
days for a crime which entails a punishment of
death, life imprisonment or period of
imprisonment exceeding 10 years and 60 days
for all other crimes if the Magistrate is
convinced that sufficient reasons exists,
following which the accused or suspect must be
released on bail.
Related Constitutional Provision
● The Constitution of India under Article 22 provides for the protection of the arrested
person to the extent that he has a right to be informed of the reason for arrest and he
must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of 24 hours.
● Article 22 (1) also provides that he shall be entitled to consult and to be defended by a
legal practitioner of his choice.
2. The primary objective of the New India Literacy Program (NILP) is
choose the right answer
Anonymous Quiz
15%
A. To promote digital literacy among school children
68%
B. To eradicate illiteracy among all adults by providing basic literacy, numeracy, and life skills
12%
C. To provide skill development training for college students
5%
D. To promote literacy only in rural areas
Answer: B
Explanation
● The New India Literacy Program (NILP), popularly known as ULLAS (Understanding of
Lifelong Learning for All in Society) is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at eradicating
illiteracy among those above 15 years of age.
● Launched in 2022, the scheme aims not only to equip learners with reading, writing, and
numeracy skills but also to enrich them with an understanding of critical life skills while
encouraging lifelong learning.
● The scheme aims to cover a target of 5 crore non-literates in the age group of 15 years
and above.
● The Scheme has five components: (i) Foundational Literacy and Numeracy, (ii) Critical Life
Skills, (iii) Vocational Skills Development, (iv) Basic Education and (v) Continuing
Education.
● NILP is mainly based on volunteerism for teaching and learning.
Explanation
● The New India Literacy Program (NILP), popularly known as ULLAS (Understanding of
Lifelong Learning for All in Society) is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at eradicating
illiteracy among those above 15 years of age.
● Launched in 2022, the scheme aims not only to equip learners with reading, writing, and
numeracy skills but also to enrich them with an understanding of critical life skills while
encouraging lifelong learning.
● The scheme aims to cover a target of 5 crore non-literates in the age group of 15 years
and above.
● The Scheme has five components: (i) Foundational Literacy and Numeracy, (ii) Critical Life
Skills, (iii) Vocational Skills Development, (iv) Basic Education and (v) Continuing
Education.
● NILP is mainly based on volunteerism for teaching and learning.
3. A sphygmomanometer is used to measure which of the following?
choose the correct answer
Anonymous Quiz
5%
A. Body temperature
68%
B. Blood pressure
15%
C. Blood sugar level
13%
D. Pulse rate
Answer: B
Explanation
● A sphygmomanometer is a medical instrument specifically designed to measure blood
pressure.
● It consists of an inflatable cuff, a pressure gauge, and (in the case of manual devices) a
stethoscope to listen to arterial blood flow sounds.
● Blood pressure is recorded as systolic pressure (the pressure when the heart beats) over
diastolic pressure (the pressure when the heart rests between beats), typically expressed in
millimeters of mercury (mmHg).
Explanation
● A sphygmomanometer is a medical instrument specifically designed to measure blood
pressure.
● It consists of an inflatable cuff, a pressure gauge, and (in the case of manual devices) a
stethoscope to listen to arterial blood flow sounds.
● Blood pressure is recorded as systolic pressure (the pressure when the heart beats) over
diastolic pressure (the pressure when the heart rests between beats), typically expressed in
millimeters of mercury (mmHg).
4. Which of the following countries share a border with Sudan?
1. Egypt
2. Chad
3. Libya
4. Ethiopia
1. Egypt
2. Chad
3. Libya
4. Ethiopia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Anonymous Quiz
23%
A. 1, 2, and 4 only
18%
B. 1 and 3 only
17%
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
43%
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4