Answer: A
Starlift Programme
● The UK has announced support to NATO’s efforts to enhance its space capabilities,
including the possibility of using UK launch vehicles and spaceports.
● This initiative, known as the STARLIFT programme, aims to develop a network of space
launch capabilities across the alliance. Hence, answer is option A.
About NATO
● Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a security alliance of
31 countries from North America and Europe.
● Established in the Cold War as a bulwark against Soviet aggression, NATO’s fundamental
goal is to safeguard the freedom and security of all its members by political and military
means.
● Article 5 of the Washington Treaty states that an attack against one Ally is an attack
against all — is at the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defence.
○ Article 5 has been invoked only once in NATO history. It happened after the
September 11 attacks on the United States in 2001, which led the alliance into
Afghanistan.
● A “NATO decision” is the expression of the collective will of all 31 member countries since
all decisions are taken by consensus.
● NATO is funded by Allies both directly and indirectly. Direct contributions are made to
NATO budgets and programmes on an agreed cost-share formula, based on Gross National
Income. Indirect funding is where allies commit capabilities or troops to a military
operation.
● At present, NATO has 32 members. In 1949, there were 12 founding members of the
Alliance: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands,
Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom and the United States.
● The other member countries are: Greece and Turkey (1952), Germany (1955), Spain
(1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania,
Romania, Slovakia and Slovenia (2004), Albania and Croatia (2009), Montenegro (2017)
North Macedonia (2020), Finland (2023) and Sweden (2024).
● NATOs Headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium.
Starlift Programme
● The UK has announced support to NATO’s efforts to enhance its space capabilities,
including the possibility of using UK launch vehicles and spaceports.
● This initiative, known as the STARLIFT programme, aims to develop a network of space
launch capabilities across the alliance. Hence, answer is option A.
About NATO
● Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a security alliance of
31 countries from North America and Europe.
● Established in the Cold War as a bulwark against Soviet aggression, NATO’s fundamental
goal is to safeguard the freedom and security of all its members by political and military
means.
● Article 5 of the Washington Treaty states that an attack against one Ally is an attack
against all — is at the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defence.
○ Article 5 has been invoked only once in NATO history. It happened after the
September 11 attacks on the United States in 2001, which led the alliance into
Afghanistan.
● A “NATO decision” is the expression of the collective will of all 31 member countries since
all decisions are taken by consensus.
● NATO is funded by Allies both directly and indirectly. Direct contributions are made to
NATO budgets and programmes on an agreed cost-share formula, based on Gross National
Income. Indirect funding is where allies commit capabilities or troops to a military
operation.
● At present, NATO has 32 members. In 1949, there were 12 founding members of the
Alliance: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands,
Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom and the United States.
● The other member countries are: Greece and Turkey (1952), Germany (1955), Spain
(1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania,
Romania, Slovakia and Slovenia (2004), Albania and Croatia (2009), Montenegro (2017)
North Macedonia (2020), Finland (2023) and Sweden (2024).
● NATOs Headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium.
3. With reference to Small Finance Banks (SFBs), consider the following statements.
1) SFBs primarily lends to unserved and underserved sections.
2) SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI.
1) SFBs primarily lends to unserved and underserved sections.
2) SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
17%
A. 1 only
11%
B. 2 only
70%
C. Both 1 and 2
3%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
About SFBs
● Small Finance Banks (SFBs) primarily undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of
deposits and lending to unserved and underserved sections including small business
units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector
entities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● These banks basically work as savings vehicles as well, as they are engaged in offering
credit facilities through their advanced technology & low-cost operations.
● They are eligible to provide credit card and debit card facilities and associational services.
Regulations
● SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI as applicable to existing
commercial banks including requirement of maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● SFBs are required to open at least 25% of its branches in unbanked rural centres.
● SFBs will be required to extend 75 per cent of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the
sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
● At least 50 per cent of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of upto
Rs. 25 lakh.
Why in News?
● Unity Small Finance Bank has announced its entry into Tamil Nadu with six branches.
Explanation
About SFBs
● Small Finance Banks (SFBs) primarily undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of
deposits and lending to unserved and underserved sections including small business
units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector
entities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● These banks basically work as savings vehicles as well, as they are engaged in offering
credit facilities through their advanced technology & low-cost operations.
● They are eligible to provide credit card and debit card facilities and associational services.
Regulations
● SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI as applicable to existing
commercial banks including requirement of maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● SFBs are required to open at least 25% of its branches in unbanked rural centres.
● SFBs will be required to extend 75 per cent of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the
sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
● At least 50 per cent of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of upto
Rs. 25 lakh.
Why in News?
● Unity Small Finance Bank has announced its entry into Tamil Nadu with six branches.
4. With reference to the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI),
consider the following statements.
1) IRDAI is an executive body.
2) IRDAI aims to promote competition in the insurance market.
3) Re-Insurance Companies fall under the regulatory authority of IRDAI.
consider the following statements.
1) IRDAI is an executive body.
2) IRDAI aims to promote competition in the insurance market.
3) Re-Insurance Companies fall under the regulatory authority of IRDAI.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A. Only one
67%
B. Only two
22%
C. All three
2%
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation
About IRDAI
● Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body set
up for protecting the interests of the policyholders and regulating, promoting and ensuring
orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● The powers and functions of the Authority are laid down in the IRDAI Act, 1999 and
Insurance Act, 1938.
● The key objectives of the IRDAI include promotion of competition so as to enhance
customer satisfaction through increased consumer choice and fair premiums, while
ensuring the financial security of the Insurance market. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Entities regulated by IRDAI:
○ Life Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies
○ General Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies. Among
them, there are some standalone Health Insurance Companies which offer health
Insurance policies.
○ Re-Insurance Companies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
○ Agency Channel
○ Intermediaries which include the following:
■ Corporate Agents
■ Brokers
■ Third Party Administrators
■ Surveyors and Loss Assessors.
Why in News?
● IRDAI has directed all insurance companies to scrutinize their IT systems for vulnerabilities.
● This advisory follows reports of data breaches involving two major general insurance
companies, Star Health and Allied Insurance, and Tata AIG General Insurance.
Explanation
About IRDAI
● Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body set
up for protecting the interests of the policyholders and regulating, promoting and ensuring
orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● The powers and functions of the Authority are laid down in the IRDAI Act, 1999 and
Insurance Act, 1938.
● The key objectives of the IRDAI include promotion of competition so as to enhance
customer satisfaction through increased consumer choice and fair premiums, while
ensuring the financial security of the Insurance market. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Entities regulated by IRDAI:
○ Life Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies
○ General Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies. Among
them, there are some standalone Health Insurance Companies which offer health
Insurance policies.
○ Re-Insurance Companies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
○ Agency Channel
○ Intermediaries which include the following:
■ Corporate Agents
■ Brokers
■ Third Party Administrators
■ Surveyors and Loss Assessors.
Why in News?
● IRDAI has directed all insurance companies to scrutinize their IT systems for vulnerabilities.
● This advisory follows reports of data breaches involving two major general insurance
companies, Star Health and Allied Insurance, and Tata AIG General Insurance.
5.Which of the following countries are members of BRICS?
1) Iran
2) Iraq
3) Argentina
4) Algeria
5) Ethipoia
1) Iran
2) Iraq
3) Argentina
4) Algeria
5) Ethipoia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Anonymous Quiz
10%
A. 1 and 2
12%
B. 4 and 5
25%
C. 1, 2 and 5
53%
D. 1, 3 and 5
Answer: D
Explanation
BRICS Expansion
● In a landmark decision, members of the BRICS declared expansion of the grouping in
2023 by welcoming six new countries into the fold.
● During the 15th BRICS summit in Johannesburg, the grouping had invited six new
members — Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from West Asia;
Egypt and Ethiopia from Africa, and Argentina from Latin America Argentina, Egypt,
Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates — to join as full members.
Hence, answer is option D.
Explanation
BRICS Expansion
● In a landmark decision, members of the BRICS declared expansion of the grouping in
2023 by welcoming six new countries into the fold.
● During the 15th BRICS summit in Johannesburg, the grouping had invited six new
members — Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from West Asia;
Egypt and Ethiopia from Africa, and Argentina from Latin America Argentina, Egypt,
Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates — to join as full members.
Hence, answer is option D.
Explore the complexities of the Tamil fisherfolk's struggle in Sri Lankan waters with insights from our History Faculty, Mr. Santhanam KLSM, in his latest article for Frontline - The Hindu (Published: 25th October 2024). Titled 'Tamil fisherfolk in Sri Lankan waters: A classic ‘wicked problem’,' the piece unpacks the intricate challenges and historical background. Dive into the full article for a thought-provoking read.
https://frontline.thehindu.com/world-affairs/tamil-fishermen-sri-lanka-navy-india-sri-lanka-relations-katchatheevu-palk-bay-trawling/article68796199.ece
https://frontline.thehindu.com/world-affairs/tamil-fishermen-sri-lanka-navy-india-sri-lanka-relations-katchatheevu-palk-bay-trawling/article68796199.ece
Mr. Ashok Vardhan Shetty, an esteemed former IAS officer, serves as a faculty member at Officers IAS Academy, where he shares his extensive expertise in Ethics and Governance with UPSC aspirants. His insightful perspectives are highly valued by his students and reach a broader audience through his regularly published articles in DT NEXT.
https://www.dtnext.in/news/chennai/how-converting-madras-race-course-land-can-help-chennai-be-a-biophilic-city-808969
https://www.dtnext.in/news/chennai/how-converting-madras-race-course-land-can-help-chennai-be-a-biophilic-city-808969
1. With reference to Registration and Recognition of Political Parties, consider the following statements.
1) Political parties are registered under Representation of Peoples Act, 1951.
2) The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, lays down the criteria for declaring any registered political party as a national party or a state party.
3) The Election Commission has the power to deregister parties.
1) Political parties are registered under Representation of Peoples Act, 1951.
2) The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, lays down the criteria for declaring any registered political party as a national party or a state party.
3) The Election Commission has the power to deregister parties.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
10%
A. Only one
60%
B. Only two
28%
C. All three
1%
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation
Unrecognised political parties
● Either newly registered parties (under the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951) or those which have not secured enough percentage of votes in Assembly or General Elections to become a State party or those which have never contested in elections since being registered are considered registered unrecognised political parties (RUPPs). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Such parties don’t enjoy all the benefits extended to the recognised parties.
● While the EC has the power to register parties under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, it does not have the power to deregister parties that are inactive. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Provisions for recognised party status
● A recognised political party shall either be a National party or a State party if it meets certain laid down conditions.
● The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, lays down the criteria for declaring any registered political party as a national party or a state party. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
National Party
● As per the Election symbols order, a registered political party needs to fulfil at least one of the following three conditions to be recognised as a national party:
○ It needs to win a minimum two percent of seats in the Lok Sabha (11 seats) from at least three different states.
○ It needs to get at least six percent of votes in four states in Lok Sabha and Assembly elections, in addition to winning four Lok Sabha seats.
○ It needs to get recognised as a state party in four or more states.
State Party
● In order to be recognised as a state party, a political party needs to fulfil at least one of the four criteria laid down by the Election Commission of India.
● A political party will be recognised as a state party:
○ If it wins three percent of the total seats in the Legislative Assembly of the state (subject to a minimum of three seats).
○ If it wins one Lok Sabha seat for every 25 Lok Sabha seats allotted for the state.
○ If it gets at least six percent of votes in a state during a Lok Sabha or Assembly election. In addition, it also needs to win at least one Lok Sabha or two Legislative Assembly seats.
○ If it wins at least eight percent votes in a state during the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly elections.
Explanation
Unrecognised political parties
● Either newly registered parties (under the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951) or those which have not secured enough percentage of votes in Assembly or General Elections to become a State party or those which have never contested in elections since being registered are considered registered unrecognised political parties (RUPPs). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Such parties don’t enjoy all the benefits extended to the recognised parties.
● While the EC has the power to register parties under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, it does not have the power to deregister parties that are inactive. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Provisions for recognised party status
● A recognised political party shall either be a National party or a State party if it meets certain laid down conditions.
● The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, lays down the criteria for declaring any registered political party as a national party or a state party. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
National Party
● As per the Election symbols order, a registered political party needs to fulfil at least one of the following three conditions to be recognised as a national party:
○ It needs to win a minimum two percent of seats in the Lok Sabha (11 seats) from at least three different states.
○ It needs to get at least six percent of votes in four states in Lok Sabha and Assembly elections, in addition to winning four Lok Sabha seats.
○ It needs to get recognised as a state party in four or more states.
State Party
● In order to be recognised as a state party, a political party needs to fulfil at least one of the four criteria laid down by the Election Commission of India.
● A political party will be recognised as a state party:
○ If it wins three percent of the total seats in the Legislative Assembly of the state (subject to a minimum of three seats).
○ If it wins one Lok Sabha seat for every 25 Lok Sabha seats allotted for the state.
○ If it gets at least six percent of votes in a state during a Lok Sabha or Assembly election. In addition, it also needs to win at least one Lok Sabha or two Legislative Assembly seats.
○ If it wins at least eight percent votes in a state during the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly elections.
2. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) scheme, consider the following statements.
1) It aims to provide comprehensive and quality antenatal care universally to all pregnant women.
2) The scheme will cover beneficiaries only from rural areas.
1) It aims to provide comprehensive and quality antenatal care universally to all pregnant women.
2) The scheme will cover beneficiaries only from rural areas.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
69%
A. 1 only
9%
B. 2 only
18%
C. Both 1 and 2
5%
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
About
● The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare launched “Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan” (PMSMA) with an aim to provide fixed-day, free of cost, assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care universally to all pregnant women in their 2nd / 3rd trimesters of pregnancy at designated government health facilities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Launched in 2016, PMSMA envisages to improve the quality and coverage of Antenatal Care (ANC) including diagnostics and counselling services as part of the Reproductive Maternal Neonatal Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A) Strategy.
● One of the key focus areas of PMSMA is to generate demand through Information Education & Communication (IEC), Inter-personal Communication (IPC) and Behavior Change Communication (BCC) activities.
● Extensive use of audio-visual and print media in raising mass awareness is an integral part of IEC/BCC campaign.
● Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM), Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) and Anganwadi Worker (AWW) play a pivotal role in mobilization of the community and potential beneficiaries in both rural and urban areas for availing of services during the PMSMA. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
About
● The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare launched “Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan” (PMSMA) with an aim to provide fixed-day, free of cost, assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care universally to all pregnant women in their 2nd / 3rd trimesters of pregnancy at designated government health facilities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Launched in 2016, PMSMA envisages to improve the quality and coverage of Antenatal Care (ANC) including diagnostics and counselling services as part of the Reproductive Maternal Neonatal Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A) Strategy.
● One of the key focus areas of PMSMA is to generate demand through Information Education & Communication (IEC), Inter-personal Communication (IPC) and Behavior Change Communication (BCC) activities.
● Extensive use of audio-visual and print media in raising mass awareness is an integral part of IEC/BCC campaign.
● Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM), Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) and Anganwadi Worker (AWW) play a pivotal role in mobilization of the community and potential beneficiaries in both rural and urban areas for availing of services during the PMSMA. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.