Answer: A
Explanation
● The Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) Report is the flagship publication of the United Nations Framework Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) and summarises progress made towards achieving the objectives of the Convention, such as the Aichi Targets and identifies key actions to achieve these. Hence, answer is option A.
Convention on Biological Diversity
● The Convention on Biological Diversity is a multilateral treaty adopted at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
● The Convention is legally binding; countries that join it (‘Parties’) are obliged to implement its provisions. The convention called upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits.
● The Convention has been ratified by 196 parties, making it one of the most widely supported treaties in the world.
● India is a party to CBD and enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, to meet the obligations under Convention on Biological Diversity.
● The CBD Secretariat is based in Montreal, Canada and it operates under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
○ The UNEP is the leading environmental authority in the United Nations system. It was founded as a result of the UN Conference on the Human Environment (also known as the Stockholm Conference) in 1972.
● The Parties (Countries) under CBD meet at regular intervals and these meetings are called Conference of Parties (COP).
Explanation
● The Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) Report is the flagship publication of the United Nations Framework Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) and summarises progress made towards achieving the objectives of the Convention, such as the Aichi Targets and identifies key actions to achieve these. Hence, answer is option A.
Convention on Biological Diversity
● The Convention on Biological Diversity is a multilateral treaty adopted at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
● The Convention is legally binding; countries that join it (‘Parties’) are obliged to implement its provisions. The convention called upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits.
● The Convention has been ratified by 196 parties, making it one of the most widely supported treaties in the world.
● India is a party to CBD and enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, to meet the obligations under Convention on Biological Diversity.
● The CBD Secretariat is based in Montreal, Canada and it operates under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
○ The UNEP is the leading environmental authority in the United Nations system. It was founded as a result of the UN Conference on the Human Environment (also known as the Stockholm Conference) in 1972.
● The Parties (Countries) under CBD meet at regular intervals and these meetings are called Conference of Parties (COP).
2. Consider the following statements.
1) Char Dham Yatra includes Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri and Pindari.
2) Do Dham Yatra includes Kedarnath and Badrinath.
1) Char Dham Yatra includes Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri and Pindari.
2) Do Dham Yatra includes Kedarnath and Badrinath.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
A. 1 only
58%
B. 2 only
32%
C. Both 1 and 2
3%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
● There are four Abodes in Himalayas collectively referred as "Char Dham Yatra" which includes four holy shrines of Hindus: Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri and Yamunotri. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Pindari Glacier, located in the Kumaon Himalayas, is the source of the Pindar River, which confluences with the Alakananda River at Karnaprayag.
● All of these temples are situated within the Garwhal region of Uttarakhand.
● Among four sacred sites Kedarnath is dedicated to Lord Shiva while Badrinath is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. On the other hand, Yamunotri and Gangotri are dedicated to Goddess Ganga and Yamuna rivers respectively.
● The high-altitude shrines remain shut for around six months every year, opening in summers (April or May) and closing with the onset of winter (October or November).
● It is believed that one should complete the Char Dham Yatra in a clockwise direction. Hence, the pilgrimage starts from Yamunotri, proceeds towards Gangotri, onto Kedarnath, and finally ends at Badrinath.
● Some devotees even do a Do Dham Yatra or a pilgrimage to two shrines - Kedarnath and Badrinath. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
● There are four Abodes in Himalayas collectively referred as "Char Dham Yatra" which includes four holy shrines of Hindus: Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri and Yamunotri. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Pindari Glacier, located in the Kumaon Himalayas, is the source of the Pindar River, which confluences with the Alakananda River at Karnaprayag.
● All of these temples are situated within the Garwhal region of Uttarakhand.
● Among four sacred sites Kedarnath is dedicated to Lord Shiva while Badrinath is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. On the other hand, Yamunotri and Gangotri are dedicated to Goddess Ganga and Yamuna rivers respectively.
● The high-altitude shrines remain shut for around six months every year, opening in summers (April or May) and closing with the onset of winter (October or November).
● It is believed that one should complete the Char Dham Yatra in a clockwise direction. Hence, the pilgrimage starts from Yamunotri, proceeds towards Gangotri, onto Kedarnath, and finally ends at Badrinath.
● Some devotees even do a Do Dham Yatra or a pilgrimage to two shrines - Kedarnath and Badrinath. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
3. With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following statements.
1) Additional days of employment can be provided in drought/natural calamity notified areas.
2) Applicants can be from rural or urban households.
3) There is a provision for unemployment allowance if employment is not provided within the stipulated time after registration.
1) Additional days of employment can be provided in drought/natural calamity notified areas.
2) Applicants can be from rural or urban households.
3) There is a provision for unemployment allowance if employment is not provided within the stipulated time after registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A. 1 and 2 only
65%
B. 1 and 3 only
10%
C. 2 and 3 only
17%
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation
● The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005, guarantees 100 days of work each financial year to any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work at the statutory minimum wage. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● In addition to this, there is a provision for upto additional 50 days of unskilled wage employment in a financial year in drought/natural calamity notified rural areas. The State Governments may make provision for providing additional days beyond the period guaranteed under the Act from their own funds. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The act makes it obligatory for the State to give rural households work on demand. In case such employment is not provided within 15 days of registration, the applicant becomes eligible for an unemployment allowance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) was initiated as directed in MGNREGA to implement the mandate of the Act.
● The Ministry of Rural Development (MRD) is monitoring the entire implementation of the MGNREGS in association with state governments.
Explanation
● The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005, guarantees 100 days of work each financial year to any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work at the statutory minimum wage. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● In addition to this, there is a provision for upto additional 50 days of unskilled wage employment in a financial year in drought/natural calamity notified rural areas. The State Governments may make provision for providing additional days beyond the period guaranteed under the Act from their own funds. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The act makes it obligatory for the State to give rural households work on demand. In case such employment is not provided within 15 days of registration, the applicant becomes eligible for an unemployment allowance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) was initiated as directed in MGNREGA to implement the mandate of the Act.
● The Ministry of Rural Development (MRD) is monitoring the entire implementation of the MGNREGS in association with state governments.
4. Consider the following factors.
1) Subsidized power supply
2) Usage of combine harvesters
3) Narrow gap between rice-harvesting season and wheat-sowing season
1) Subsidized power supply
2) Usage of combine harvesters
3) Narrow gap between rice-harvesting season and wheat-sowing season
Which of the above factor(s) can potentially encourage stubble burning?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
A. 1 and 2 only
20%
B. 1 and 3 only
30%
C. 2 and 3 only
44%
D. 1, 2 and 3
As we celebrate the festival of lights, we're taking a short break! Our general quiz will be postponed to next week.
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#Diwali #Quiz #upsc #officersiasacademy
Answer: D
Explanation
● Stubble burning is the process of intentionally setting fire to the straw stubble that remains after grains, like paddy, wheat, etc., have been harvested, to remove them from the field to sow the next crop.
● This is commonly practiced by farmers of Punjab and Haryana.
Evolution of stubble burning
● During the late 1970s and early 1980s, which was the Green Revolution era, Punjab and Haryana shifted from their traditional crops (maize, pearl millet, pulses and oilseeds) to the wheat-paddy cultivation cycle. Free or subsidized power supply for groundwater extraction plays a role here in the shift. Hence, factor 1 is correct.
● In Punjab and Haryana, while the paddy crop is usually harvested between the first and last weeks of October, the wheat crop is sown from the first week of November.
● Paddy harvesting and threshing are labor-intensive and in case of shortage of cheap labor machines like the Combined Harvester are used which only pick the plant’s top part (panicle) and leave the remaining stalk of about 2-3 feet (stubble) standing in the field. Hence, factor 2 is correct.
● With only 10-15 days between the rice-harvesting season and the wheat-sowing time, farmers often burn the stubble to quickly eliminate the paddy stubble. Hence, factor 3 is correct.
Explanation
● Stubble burning is the process of intentionally setting fire to the straw stubble that remains after grains, like paddy, wheat, etc., have been harvested, to remove them from the field to sow the next crop.
● This is commonly practiced by farmers of Punjab and Haryana.
Evolution of stubble burning
● During the late 1970s and early 1980s, which was the Green Revolution era, Punjab and Haryana shifted from their traditional crops (maize, pearl millet, pulses and oilseeds) to the wheat-paddy cultivation cycle. Free or subsidized power supply for groundwater extraction plays a role here in the shift. Hence, factor 1 is correct.
● In Punjab and Haryana, while the paddy crop is usually harvested between the first and last weeks of October, the wheat crop is sown from the first week of November.
● Paddy harvesting and threshing are labor-intensive and in case of shortage of cheap labor machines like the Combined Harvester are used which only pick the plant’s top part (panicle) and leave the remaining stalk of about 2-3 feet (stubble) standing in the field. Hence, factor 2 is correct.
● With only 10-15 days between the rice-harvesting season and the wheat-sowing time, farmers often burn the stubble to quickly eliminate the paddy stubble. Hence, factor 3 is correct.
5. Consider the following landmark judgements
1. Justice Puttaswamy Vs Union of India case - Recognised that transgenders are equally entitled to the rights in the constitution
2. Lily Thomas Vs Union of India case - Right to Privacy was recognised a fundamental right
3. National Legal Services Authority Vs Union of India case - Automatic disqualification of MPs/MLAs in case of conviction with sentence greater than 2 years
1. Justice Puttaswamy Vs Union of India case - Recognised that transgenders are equally entitled to the rights in the constitution
2. Lily Thomas Vs Union of India case - Right to Privacy was recognised a fundamental right
3. National Legal Services Authority Vs Union of India case - Automatic disqualification of MPs/MLAs in case of conviction with sentence greater than 2 years
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
Anonymous Quiz
28%
A. Only one
19%
B. Only two
12%
C. Only three
41%
D. None
Answer: D
Explanation
Justice Puttaswamy Vs Union of India case - Right to Privacy was recognised a fundamental right
National Legal Services Authority Vs Union of India case - Recognised transgenders are equally entitled to the rights in the constitution
Lily Thomas Vs Union of India case - Automatic disqualification of MPs/MLAs in case of conviction with sentence greater than 2 years.
Explanation
Justice Puttaswamy Vs Union of India case - Right to Privacy was recognised a fundamental right
National Legal Services Authority Vs Union of India case - Recognised transgenders are equally entitled to the rights in the constitution
Lily Thomas Vs Union of India case - Automatic disqualification of MPs/MLAs in case of conviction with sentence greater than 2 years.
Last Batch for UPSC 2025 – Your Final Chance to Succeed!
This is it! The LAST batch of the year at Officers IAS Academy starts on November 15, 2024! Don’t wait, your dream career awaits:
One-on-One Mentorship with ex-IAS Officers
Online & Offline Learning Options
Weekly Tests to keep you sharp
Seats are LIMITED – secure yours NOW and get a head start on your UPSC 2025 journey!
Kindly fill the form to ensure your Admission- https://forms.gle/eKiF22b674nXryEVA
This is it! The LAST batch of the year at Officers IAS Academy starts on November 15, 2024! Don’t wait, your dream career awaits:
One-on-One Mentorship with ex-IAS Officers
Online & Offline Learning Options
Weekly Tests to keep you sharp
Seats are LIMITED – secure yours NOW and get a head start on your UPSC 2025 journey!
Kindly fill the form to ensure your Admission- https://forms.gle/eKiF22b674nXryEVA
Answer: D
Explanation
About the Mission
● Launched in 2020, Mission Karmayogi is a nationwide programme to lay the foundation for capacity building of civil servants. Hence, answer is option D.
● Officially called the "National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB)", the mission plans to transform human resource management in the country.
● Mission Karmayogi aims to prepare the Indian civil servants for the future by making them more creative, constructive, imaginative, innovative, proactive, professional, progressive, energetic, enabling, transparent and technology-enabled.
● The fundamental focus of the reform is the creation of a ‘citizen centric civil service’ capable of creating and delivering services conducive to economic growth and public welfare.
● It shifts the focus from “Rule based training to Role based training”. Greater thrust has been laid on behavioral change.
● NPCSCB will be governed by the Prime Minister’s Human Resource Council, which will also include state Chief Ministers, Union Cabinet ministers and experts. This council will approve and review civil service capacity building programmes.
iGOTKarmayogi
● The Mission Karmayogi programme is delivered by the digital platform called iGOTKarmayogi.
● The platform enables officials to explore, acquire and certify their competencies that are critical to discharging their duties.
Explanation
About the Mission
● Launched in 2020, Mission Karmayogi is a nationwide programme to lay the foundation for capacity building of civil servants. Hence, answer is option D.
● Officially called the "National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB)", the mission plans to transform human resource management in the country.
● Mission Karmayogi aims to prepare the Indian civil servants for the future by making them more creative, constructive, imaginative, innovative, proactive, professional, progressive, energetic, enabling, transparent and technology-enabled.
● The fundamental focus of the reform is the creation of a ‘citizen centric civil service’ capable of creating and delivering services conducive to economic growth and public welfare.
● It shifts the focus from “Rule based training to Role based training”. Greater thrust has been laid on behavioral change.
● NPCSCB will be governed by the Prime Minister’s Human Resource Council, which will also include state Chief Ministers, Union Cabinet ministers and experts. This council will approve and review civil service capacity building programmes.
iGOTKarmayogi
● The Mission Karmayogi programme is delivered by the digital platform called iGOTKarmayogi.
● The platform enables officials to explore, acquire and certify their competencies that are critical to discharging their duties.