Answer: A
Explanation:
● Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): Part IV of the Constitution contains DPSPs
aimed at achieving social and economic justice.
● Article 39 (b): The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing– that the
ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best
to sub serve the common good.
● Article 39 (c): The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing– that the
operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means
of production to the common detriment.
● Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Right to Property: Initially, Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 guaranteed the right to property as a
Fundamental Right.
● Article 31C was added through the 25th amendment in 1971. It provided an exception
that laws made to fulfil the principles under Articles 39(b) and (c) shall not be void on the
ground that it violated Fundamental Rights including right to property.
● In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), a 13-judge Bench of the Supreme Court upheld
the validity of Article 31C but made it subject to judicial review.

○ It also said that property rights could not be arbitrarily overridden.
● Right to property was omitted from the Fundamental rights and then made a
constitutional right under Article 300A, requiring any government acquisition to be for
public purposes and accompanied by adequate compensation. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect.

1. GovAI is a

Answer: C
Explanation:
● GovAI refers to a novel concept of applying artificial intelligence (AI) in governance to
enhance the efficiency, transparency, and effectiveness of government operations, decision-
making, and service delivery. Hence answer is option C.
● It aims to use AI-driven technologies, such as machine learning models, natural language
processing, and predictive analytics, to transform governance into a more responsive, data-
driven, and inclusive process.

2. Consider the following statements.
1) Copyright can be used to describe the rights that creators have over their literary works.
2) Paintings and sculptures can be protected using copyright.

Answer: D
Explanation:
● Copyright is a legal term used to describe the rights that creators have over their literary
and artistic works. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Works covered by copyright range from books, music, paintings, sculpture and films, to
computer programs, databases, advertisements, maps and technical drawings. Hence
statement 2 is correct.

3. Consider the following statements about The United Nations Peacekeeping Forces.
1) The UN Peacekeeping Forces may only be employed when both parties to a conflict accept
their presence.
2) The operational control of the force belongs to the United Nations Security Council.
3) The Force is deployed only after an UN Security Council decision.

Answer: A
Explanation:
● The United Nations Peacekeeping Forces are employed by the UN to maintain or re-
establish peace in an area of armed conflict.
● The UN may engage in conflicts between states as well as in struggles within states. The
UN acts as an impartial third party in order to prepare the ground for a settlement of the
issues that have provoked armed conflict.
● The three basic principles that guide U.N.’s Peacekeeping missions are:
○ Consent of the parties
○ Impartiality
○ Non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate.
● The UN Peacekeeping Forces may only be employed when both parties to a conflict
accept their presence. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The Peacekeeping Forces are subordinate to the leadership of the United Nations. They
are normally deployed as a consequence of a UN Security Council decision. However, on
occasion, the initiative has been taken by the General Assembly. Operational control
belongs to the Secretary-General and his secretariat. Hence statements 2 and 3 are
incorrect.
● The first UN peacekeeping mission was a team of observers deployed to the Middle East in
1948, during the 1948 Arab–Israeli War.

4. Consider the following statements with reference to the Lok Adalats.
1. Lok Adalat serves as an alternative method of dispute resolution.
2. Lok Adalats are constitutional bodies.
3. The award made by the Lok Adalats is final and binding on all parties and no appeal lies
against such an award before any court of law.

Answer: B
Explanation:
● Lok Adalat (people’s courts) is a body established by the government to settle disputes
through conciliation and compromise.
● Lok Adalat is an alternative method of dispute resolution. It is a forum where disputes
or cases pending in the court of law or at the pre-litigation stage are settled amicably.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

● Under the Act, the award made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil
court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal lies against such an award
before any court of law. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat, though there is no
provision for an appeal against such an award, they are free to initiate litigation by
approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required
procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate.

5. Consider the following statements.
1. The Union Government passed Model Prisons Act 2023 to act as a framework for prison
management.
2. Prison is a State subject under the Indian constitution.

Answer: C
Explanation:
● Model Prisons Act 2023: Prison is a State subject and so the Union Government has come
up with this model to act as a framework for prison management. Hence, statements 1 and
2 are correct.
● The salient features of this act are,
○ Provision for security assessment and segregation of prisoners, individual sentence
planning,
○ Grievance redressal, prison development board, attitudinal change towards
prisoners.
○ Provision of separate accommodation for women prisoners, transgender, etc.
○ Provision for use of technology in prison administration with a view to bring
transparency in prison administration.
○ Provision for video conferencing with courts, scientific and technological
interventions in prisons, etc.
○ Provision of punishment for prisoners and jail staff for use of prohibited items like
mobile phones etc. in jails.
○ Provision regarding establishment and management of high security jail, open jail
(open and semi open), etc.
○ Provision for protecting the society from the criminal activities of hardened criminals and habitual offenders, etc.
○ Provision for legal aid to prisoners, provision of parole, furlough and premature
release etc. to incentivise good conduct.
○ Focus on vocational training and skill development of prisoners and their reintegration into the society.

1. E-Kuber is related to

Answer: D
Explanation:
● The e-Kuber is the Core Banking Solution (CBS) of the RBI which enables each bank to
connect their single current account across the country.
○ CBS is a facility or arrangement that helps banks to offer a large number of customer-
centric services on a 24×7 basis from a single location.

● Banks have current accounts with the RBI for facilitating their day to day functions. Banks
can get decentralised access to this account from anywhere-anytime using the e-kuber
facility.
● E-kuber is used by the RBI to execute various transactions with banks.
● Utility of e-kuber is that it is used to conduct exercises like auctioning of government
securities.
● The e-kuber system was implemented in 2012, and it is considered as one of the successful
central banks administered Core Banking Systems in the world.

2. With reference to the E-Way Bill system in GST, consider the following statements.
1. It is a mechanism to track the movement of goods by motorized and non motorized
conveyance.
2. All e-way bills have a validity of three days.
3. The objective is to check tax evasion.
4. An e-way bill is mandatory when the value of a consignment exceeds Rs. 50,000.