Answer: A
Explanation
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Space Station (ISS) is a space station, or a
habitable artificial satellite, in low Earth orbit (not medium earth orbit)
○ Low Earth orbit (LEO) is a geocentric orbits with altitudes below 2,000 km
○ Medium Earth orbit (MEO) is a geocentric orbits ranging in altitude from 2,000 km
to just below geosynchronous orbit at 35,786 kilometers (22,236 miles)
● Its first component launched into orbit in 1998 and the ISS is now the largest human-made
body in low Earth orbit.
● Statement 2 is correct: The ISS serves as a microgravity and space environment research
laboratory in which crew members conduct experiments in biology, human biology, physics,
astronomy, meteorology, and other fields.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The ISS programme is a joint project between five participating
space agencies: NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe) and
CSA (Canada). (not P5 countries)
Explanation
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Space Station (ISS) is a space station, or a
habitable artificial satellite, in low Earth orbit (not medium earth orbit)
○ Low Earth orbit (LEO) is a geocentric orbits with altitudes below 2,000 km
○ Medium Earth orbit (MEO) is a geocentric orbits ranging in altitude from 2,000 km
to just below geosynchronous orbit at 35,786 kilometers (22,236 miles)
● Its first component launched into orbit in 1998 and the ISS is now the largest human-made
body in low Earth orbit.
● Statement 2 is correct: The ISS serves as a microgravity and space environment research
laboratory in which crew members conduct experiments in biology, human biology, physics,
astronomy, meteorology, and other fields.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The ISS programme is a joint project between five participating
space agencies: NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe) and
CSA (Canada). (not P5 countries)
Officers IAS Academy had the privilege of hosting senior officials from The Hindu, including Editor in chief Mr. Suresh Nambath, CEO Mr. L. V. Navneeth, and Vice President Mr. Sridhar Aranala and Sr GM Mr. R A Babu vijay, for an insightful discussion on their newly launched bi-monthly magazine, Surf and Drive. This magazine aims to provide UPSC aspirants with essential updates and in-depth analysis, serving as a valuable resource in their preparation journey.
During the visit, our Director, Mr. Israel Jebasingh had an engaging discussion with The Hindu team, sharing his valuable insights and suggestions about the magazine's content and its role in enhancing aspirants' preparation strategies.
Officers IAS Academy extends its gratitude to The Hindu team for their visit and looks forward to future collaborations aimed at enriching the learning experience for aspiring civil servants.
#OfficersIASAcademy #TheHindu #UPSCPreparation #CivilServices #UPSC2025 #UPSCAspirants #UPSCMotivation
During the visit, our Director, Mr. Israel Jebasingh had an engaging discussion with The Hindu team, sharing his valuable insights and suggestions about the magazine's content and its role in enhancing aspirants' preparation strategies.
Officers IAS Academy extends its gratitude to The Hindu team for their visit and looks forward to future collaborations aimed at enriching the learning experience for aspiring civil servants.
#OfficersIASAcademy #TheHindu #UPSCPreparation #CivilServices #UPSC2025 #UPSCAspirants #UPSCMotivation
1. Mount Ibu, recently seen in the news, is a volcano present in which of the following country?
choose the correct answer
Anonymous Quiz
7%
A. United States of America
21%
B. Japan
49%
C. Indonesia
23%
D. Fiji
2. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Hydroponics’
1. It is a method of soilless farming in which plants are grown using mineral nutrient solutions
in the liquid medium.
2. Hydroponics helps plants to grow faster with higher yield when compared with
conventional soil based cultivation.
1. It is a method of soilless farming in which plants are grown using mineral nutrient solutions
in the liquid medium.
2. Hydroponics helps plants to grow faster with higher yield when compared with
conventional soil based cultivation.
Answer: C
Soln:
● Mount Ibu, on the remote island of Halmahera, Indonesia, sent a column of smoke up to 4
km into the sky in an eruption on January 15, 2024.
● The volcano in eastern Indonesia has erupted at least a thousand times in a single month
(January 2024). Hence, option C is correct.
Soln:
● Mount Ibu, on the remote island of Halmahera, Indonesia, sent a column of smoke up to 4
km into the sky in an eruption on January 15, 2024.
● The volcano in eastern Indonesia has erupted at least a thousand times in a single month
(January 2024). Hence, option C is correct.
Answer: C
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Hydroponics is a subset of hydroculture, which is a method of
growing plants without soil (Soilless farming) by instead using mineral nutrient solutions in
a liquid medium. Terrestrial plants may be grown with only their roots exposed to the
nutritious liquid, or the roots may be physically supported by an inert medium such as
perlite or gravel.
Advantages of Hydroponics
● The increased control over growing conditions makes it easier to provide the best possible
environment for plants, leading to better quality produce and high yield.
● Statement 2 is correct: Plants grow 50% faster than soil based cultivation under the same
condition because of the easy access to food and water. The production in hydroponics may
be increased approximately two times as compared with soil cultivation in a comparable
area with correct management practiced because the plant does not have to compete for
moisture and nutrients.
● Hydroponics gardens can provide plants with optimum qualities of the necessary nutrients
during the different seasons. This will enable maximize growth to be achieved
● A small hydroponics garden can be set up almost anywhere, even upstairs, balconies and
open areas and protected structures because the land is not necessary.
● Hydroponics products generally taste better and are higher in nutritional value than field-
grown crops.
● The occurrence of soil borne disease and nematode damage is not possible, so hydroponic
production is exported safely
● There is no need for crop rotations as growing media can be reused continuously or
replaced.
● The plants are uniform in growth and maturity.
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Hydroponics is a subset of hydroculture, which is a method of
growing plants without soil (Soilless farming) by instead using mineral nutrient solutions in
a liquid medium. Terrestrial plants may be grown with only their roots exposed to the
nutritious liquid, or the roots may be physically supported by an inert medium such as
perlite or gravel.
Advantages of Hydroponics
● The increased control over growing conditions makes it easier to provide the best possible
environment for plants, leading to better quality produce and high yield.
● Statement 2 is correct: Plants grow 50% faster than soil based cultivation under the same
condition because of the easy access to food and water. The production in hydroponics may
be increased approximately two times as compared with soil cultivation in a comparable
area with correct management practiced because the plant does not have to compete for
moisture and nutrients.
● Hydroponics gardens can provide plants with optimum qualities of the necessary nutrients
during the different seasons. This will enable maximize growth to be achieved
● A small hydroponics garden can be set up almost anywhere, even upstairs, balconies and
open areas and protected structures because the land is not necessary.
● Hydroponics products generally taste better and are higher in nutritional value than field-
grown crops.
● The occurrence of soil borne disease and nematode damage is not possible, so hydroponic
production is exported safely
● There is no need for crop rotations as growing media can be reused continuously or
replaced.
● The plants are uniform in growth and maturity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Anonymous Quiz
3%
A) 1 only
15%
B) 1 and 2 only
26%
C) 2 and 3 only
57%
D) 1,2 and 3
3. Which of the following principles are adhered to by regenerative agriculture?
1) Minimize soil distribution through conservation tillage
2) Diversify crops to replenish nutrients
3) Retain soil cover using cover crops
1) Minimize soil distribution through conservation tillage
2) Diversify crops to replenish nutrients
3) Retain soil cover using cover crops
4. Consider the following statements about the International Labour Organisation(ILO)
1) India is a founder member of the ILO.
2) It is a specialized agency under the United Nations.
3) It is a tripartite agency which brings together governments, employers and workers of 187
member States, to set labor standards.
1) India is a founder member of the ILO.
2) It is a specialized agency under the United Nations.
3) It is a tripartite agency which brings together governments, employers and workers of 187
member States, to set labor standards.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
A) Only one
28%
B) Only two
57%
C) All the three
8%
D) None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation
● Regenerative agriculture is a system of farming principles and practices that seeks to
rehabilitate farm ecosystems by placing a heavy premium on soil health , biodiversity
improvement, water and air quality.
● It includes practices like use of natural inputs, minimum-till, mulching, multicropping and
sowing of diverse and native varieties.
Principles in Regenerative Agriculture
● Regenerative agriculture adheres to the following principles:
○ Minimize soil distribution through conservation tillage
○ Diversify crops to replenish nutrients
○ Retain soil cover using cover crops. Hence all the statements are correct.
○ Integrate livestock, which adds manure to the soil and serves as a source of carbon
sinks.
Significance
● Regenerative farming can reduce emissions from agriculture and convert croplands and
pastures into carbon sinks.
● It improves crop yield and promotes the growth of nutrient rich crops.
● It facilitates soil aggregation and nutrient cycling.
● Other benefits of regenerative agriculture include more efficient water use and fewer pests.
Why in the news ?
● States like Odisha have been promoting regenerative agricultural practices to promote food
security and enhance resilience to climate change.
Explanation
● Regenerative agriculture is a system of farming principles and practices that seeks to
rehabilitate farm ecosystems by placing a heavy premium on soil health , biodiversity
improvement, water and air quality.
● It includes practices like use of natural inputs, minimum-till, mulching, multicropping and
sowing of diverse and native varieties.
Principles in Regenerative Agriculture
● Regenerative agriculture adheres to the following principles:
○ Minimize soil distribution through conservation tillage
○ Diversify crops to replenish nutrients
○ Retain soil cover using cover crops. Hence all the statements are correct.
○ Integrate livestock, which adds manure to the soil and serves as a source of carbon
sinks.
Significance
● Regenerative farming can reduce emissions from agriculture and convert croplands and
pastures into carbon sinks.
● It improves crop yield and promotes the growth of nutrient rich crops.
● It facilitates soil aggregation and nutrient cycling.
● Other benefits of regenerative agriculture include more efficient water use and fewer pests.
Why in the news ?
● States like Odisha have been promoting regenerative agricultural practices to promote food
security and enhance resilience to climate change.
5. With reference to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), consider the following
statements.
1. Insolvency is a situation where individuals or companies are unable to repay their
outstanding debt.
2. The minimum amount of default after which the creditor or debtor could apply for
insolvency is ₹1 lakh.
3. The Debt Recovery Tribunal adjudicates insolvency resolutions for individuals and
partnership firms.
4. Amendments to IBC mandate a deadline for the completion of the resolution process within
330 days.
statements.
1. Insolvency is a situation where individuals or companies are unable to repay their
outstanding debt.
2. The minimum amount of default after which the creditor or debtor could apply for
insolvency is ₹1 lakh.
3. The Debt Recovery Tribunal adjudicates insolvency resolutions for individuals and
partnership firms.
4. Amendments to IBC mandate a deadline for the completion of the resolution process within
330 days.
Answer: C
Explanation
● The International Labour Organisation was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of
Versailles that ended World War I.
● In 1944, ILO adopted the Declaration of Philadelphia which embodies basic principles of
economic justice.
● Statement 3 is correct:It became the first specialized agency of the UN in 1946.
● Statement 2 is correct: ILO is the only tripartite U.N. agency which brings together
governments, employers and workers of 187 member States, to set labor standards,
develop policies and devise programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
● Statement 1 is correct: India is a founder member of the ILO.
● It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Explanation
● The International Labour Organisation was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of
Versailles that ended World War I.
● In 1944, ILO adopted the Declaration of Philadelphia which embodies basic principles of
economic justice.
● Statement 3 is correct:It became the first specialized agency of the UN in 1946.
● Statement 2 is correct: ILO is the only tripartite U.N. agency which brings together
governments, employers and workers of 187 member States, to set labor standards,
develop policies and devise programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
● Statement 1 is correct: India is a founder member of the ILO.
● It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
A. Only one
33%
B. Only two
50%
C. Only three
12%
D. All four
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Insolvency is a situation where individuals or companies are
unable to repay their outstanding debt.
● The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) provides a time-bound process for resolving the
insolvency of corporate debtors called the corporate insolvency resolution process
(CIRP).
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Earlier, the minimum amount of default after which the
creditor or debtor could apply for insolvency was ₹1 lakh, but considering the stress on
companies amid the covid pandemic, the government increased the minimum amount to ₹1
crore.
● Under CIRP, a committee of creditors is constituted to decide on the insolvency resolution.
The committee may consider a resolution plan which typically provides for the payoff of
debt by merger, acquisition, or restructuring of the company.
● If a resolution plan is not approved by the committee of creditors within the specified time,
the company is liquidated (the assets of the borrower will be sold to repay creditors).
● During CIRP, the affairs of the company are managed by the Resolution Professional (RP),
who is appointed to conduct CIRP.
● Statement 3 is correct: The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) adjudicates
insolvency resolutions for companies and Limited Liability Partnerships. The Debt
Recovery Tribunal (DRT) adjudicates insolvency resolution for individuals and
partnership firms.
● The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) regulates the functioning of IPs,
IPAs and IUs.
● Statement 4 is correct: The code was amended in 2019 which mandated a deadline for the
completion of the resolution process within 330 days, including all litigation and
judicial processes.
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2021
● In 2021, the Parliament passed the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act,
2021 to expedite and provide an efficient alternate insolvency resolution process for
corporate persons classified as micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) under
IBC.
Highlights of the Act
Pre-packaged insolvency resolution
● The Act introduces an alternate insolvency resolution process for MSMEs, called the
pre-packaged insolvency resolution process (PIRP).
● Unlike CIRP, PIRP may be initiated only by debtors. The debtor should have a base
resolution plan in place.
● During PIRP, the management of the company will remain with the debtor.
Minimum default amount
● Application for initiating PIRP may be filed in the event of a default of at least one lakh
rupees.
Debtors eligible for PIRP
● PIRP may be initiated in the event of a default by a corporate debtor classified as an MSME
under the MSME Development Act, 2006.
○ Currently, under the 2006 Act, an enterprise with an annual turnover of up to Rs 250 crore, and investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to Rs 50 crore, is classified as an MSME.
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Insolvency is a situation where individuals or companies are
unable to repay their outstanding debt.
● The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) provides a time-bound process for resolving the
insolvency of corporate debtors called the corporate insolvency resolution process
(CIRP).
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Earlier, the minimum amount of default after which the
creditor or debtor could apply for insolvency was ₹1 lakh, but considering the stress on
companies amid the covid pandemic, the government increased the minimum amount to ₹1
crore.
● Under CIRP, a committee of creditors is constituted to decide on the insolvency resolution.
The committee may consider a resolution plan which typically provides for the payoff of
debt by merger, acquisition, or restructuring of the company.
● If a resolution plan is not approved by the committee of creditors within the specified time,
the company is liquidated (the assets of the borrower will be sold to repay creditors).
● During CIRP, the affairs of the company are managed by the Resolution Professional (RP),
who is appointed to conduct CIRP.
● Statement 3 is correct: The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) adjudicates
insolvency resolutions for companies and Limited Liability Partnerships. The Debt
Recovery Tribunal (DRT) adjudicates insolvency resolution for individuals and
partnership firms.
● The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) regulates the functioning of IPs,
IPAs and IUs.
● Statement 4 is correct: The code was amended in 2019 which mandated a deadline for the
completion of the resolution process within 330 days, including all litigation and
judicial processes.
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2021
● In 2021, the Parliament passed the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act,
2021 to expedite and provide an efficient alternate insolvency resolution process for
corporate persons classified as micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) under
IBC.
Highlights of the Act
Pre-packaged insolvency resolution
● The Act introduces an alternate insolvency resolution process for MSMEs, called the
pre-packaged insolvency resolution process (PIRP).
● Unlike CIRP, PIRP may be initiated only by debtors. The debtor should have a base
resolution plan in place.
● During PIRP, the management of the company will remain with the debtor.
Minimum default amount
● Application for initiating PIRP may be filed in the event of a default of at least one lakh
rupees.
Debtors eligible for PIRP
● PIRP may be initiated in the event of a default by a corporate debtor classified as an MSME
under the MSME Development Act, 2006.
○ Currently, under the 2006 Act, an enterprise with an annual turnover of up to Rs 250 crore, and investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to Rs 50 crore, is classified as an MSME.
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