Answer: C
Soln:
● In southern France, 33 nations (As of 2024) are collaborating to build the world's largest
tokamak, a magnetic fusion device that has been designed to prove the feasibility of
fusion as a large-scale and carbon-free source of energy based on the same principle that
powers our Sun and stars. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The experimental campaign that will be carried out at ITER is crucial to advancing fusion
science and preparing the way for the fusion power plants of tomorrow.
● Thousands of engineers and scientists have contributed to the design of ITER since the idea
for an international joint experiment in fusion was first launched in 1985.
● The ITER Members—China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the
United States—are now engaged in a decades-long collaboration to build and operate the
ITER experimental device, and together bring fusion to the point where a demonstration
fusion reactor can be designed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Soln:
● In southern France, 33 nations (As of 2024) are collaborating to build the world's largest
tokamak, a magnetic fusion device that has been designed to prove the feasibility of
fusion as a large-scale and carbon-free source of energy based on the same principle that
powers our Sun and stars. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The experimental campaign that will be carried out at ITER is crucial to advancing fusion
science and preparing the way for the fusion power plants of tomorrow.
● Thousands of engineers and scientists have contributed to the design of ITER since the idea
for an international joint experiment in fusion was first launched in 1985.
● The ITER Members—China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the
United States—are now engaged in a decades-long collaboration to build and operate the
ITER experimental device, and together bring fusion to the point where a demonstration
fusion reactor can be designed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
69%
A) 1 only
5%
B) 2 only
22%
C) Both 1 and 2
3%
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: The Archaeological Survey of India is the premier organization for
the archaeological research and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It is an attached office under the Ministry of Culture.
● Maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national
importance is the prime concern of the ASI.
● Besides, it regulates all archaeological activities in the country as per the provisions of the
Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. It also regulates
the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972.
History
● Archaeological and historical pursuits in India started with the efforts of Sir William Jones,
who put together a group of antiquarians to form the Asiatic Society in 1784 in Calcutta.
● The Archaeological Survey of India was eventually formed in 1861 by a statute passed into
law by Viceroy Lord Canning with Alexander Cunningham as the first Archaeological
Surveyor.
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: The Archaeological Survey of India is the premier organization for
the archaeological research and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It is an attached office under the Ministry of Culture.
● Maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national
importance is the prime concern of the ASI.
● Besides, it regulates all archaeological activities in the country as per the provisions of the
Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. It also regulates
the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972.
History
● Archaeological and historical pursuits in India started with the efforts of Sir William Jones,
who put together a group of antiquarians to form the Asiatic Society in 1784 in Calcutta.
● The Archaeological Survey of India was eventually formed in 1861 by a statute passed into
law by Viceroy Lord Canning with Alexander Cunningham as the first Archaeological
Surveyor.
5. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Hoolock
Gibbons’ in its natural habitat?
Gibbons’ in its natural habitat?
choose the correct answer
Anonymous Quiz
6%
a) Sand deserts of northwest India
18%
b) High altitude wetlands of Ladakh
62%
c) Eastern Himalayas
14%
d) Western Ghats
Answer: C
Explanation
● Hoolock Gibbons are native to the forests of the Eastern Himalayas in India, specifically in
the northeastern states such as Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of Meghalaya.
● These regions provide the dense, tropical rainforests that form the natural habitat
necessary for the survival of Hoolock Gibbons.
● They are arboreal animals, meaning they live in trees, and they require large stretches of
contiguous forest canopy to move around using brachiation (swinging from branch to branch).
Types of Gibbons Found in India
● Hoolock gibbons are the only apes found in India. They were divided into two species:
the Western Hoolock Gibbon and the Eastern Hoolock Gibbon.
○ Western Hoolock Gibbon: It is found in the northeastern states of India, including Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and Meghalaya.Western Hoolock gibbons have a white or pale browband, distinguishing them from Eastern Hoolock gibbons.
○ Eastern Hoolock Gibbon: Also found in northeastern India, particularly in Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland. Eastern Hoolock gibbons have a distinct dark
browband.
● Until 2021 there were two known species of Gibbon, however a study conducted by the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in Hyderabad could not find any
genetic differences between the two gibbons which were earlier differentiated based on
skin coat colour.
● This study revealed that there is only one species of Hoolock Gibbon in India Threats
● Habitat Loss and Fragmentation: One of the primary threats to gibbons is habitat loss due
to deforestation, agriculture, logging, and urban expansion.
● Illegal Wildlife Trade: Gibbons are sometimes captured and sold for their body parts,
which are used in traditional medicine or for ornamental purposes.
● Infrastructure Development: The construction of roads, dams, and other infrastructure
projects can fragment gibbon habitats, disrupt their movement patterns, and increase the
risk of accidental deaths due to collisions with vehicles.
Conservation status
● Western hoolock gibbon is classified as endangered and the eastern hoolock gibbon as
vulnerable as per the IUCN Red list
● Hoolock gibbons are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act 2022.
Why in news?
● As railway lines are going to be laid through the Hollongapar gibbon sanctuary, Canopy bridges will be constructed on top of railway tracks for gibbons to move across regions in the sanctuary with ease.
○ Canopy bridges refer to artificial and natural crossing structures, built across roads and railway tracks to enable arboreal animals to traverse with ease. Refer to
the image provided below.
Explanation
● Hoolock Gibbons are native to the forests of the Eastern Himalayas in India, specifically in
the northeastern states such as Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of Meghalaya.
● These regions provide the dense, tropical rainforests that form the natural habitat
necessary for the survival of Hoolock Gibbons.
● They are arboreal animals, meaning they live in trees, and they require large stretches of
contiguous forest canopy to move around using brachiation (swinging from branch to branch).
Types of Gibbons Found in India
● Hoolock gibbons are the only apes found in India. They were divided into two species:
the Western Hoolock Gibbon and the Eastern Hoolock Gibbon.
○ Western Hoolock Gibbon: It is found in the northeastern states of India, including Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and Meghalaya.Western Hoolock gibbons have a white or pale browband, distinguishing them from Eastern Hoolock gibbons.
○ Eastern Hoolock Gibbon: Also found in northeastern India, particularly in Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland. Eastern Hoolock gibbons have a distinct dark
browband.
● Until 2021 there were two known species of Gibbon, however a study conducted by the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in Hyderabad could not find any
genetic differences between the two gibbons which were earlier differentiated based on
skin coat colour.
● This study revealed that there is only one species of Hoolock Gibbon in India Threats
● Habitat Loss and Fragmentation: One of the primary threats to gibbons is habitat loss due
to deforestation, agriculture, logging, and urban expansion.
● Illegal Wildlife Trade: Gibbons are sometimes captured and sold for their body parts,
which are used in traditional medicine or for ornamental purposes.
● Infrastructure Development: The construction of roads, dams, and other infrastructure
projects can fragment gibbon habitats, disrupt their movement patterns, and increase the
risk of accidental deaths due to collisions with vehicles.
Conservation status
● Western hoolock gibbon is classified as endangered and the eastern hoolock gibbon as
vulnerable as per the IUCN Red list
● Hoolock gibbons are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act 2022.
Why in news?
● As railway lines are going to be laid through the Hollongapar gibbon sanctuary, Canopy bridges will be constructed on top of railway tracks for gibbons to move across regions in the sanctuary with ease.
○ Canopy bridges refer to artificial and natural crossing structures, built across roads and railway tracks to enable arboreal animals to traverse with ease. Refer to
the image provided below.
Officer's Daily Motivation
#upsc2024 #motivation #upscpreparation #success #officersiasacademy #upsc #dream #coaching #ias #ips
#upsc2024 #motivation #upscpreparation #success #officersiasacademy #upsc #dream #coaching #ias #ips
https://youtu.be/A3hbwuneJkM
PRECAP 2025 – The Ultimate Prelims Revision Program
1. Duration: 50 Days – Intensive, structured, and result-oriented
2. Expert-Led Masterclasses: Exclusive sessions by Rangarajan (Ex-IAS) & faculty
3. Coverage: Complete syllabus revision for General Studies & CSAT
4. Tests: 26 high-quality Practice Tests (Full-length + Sectional)
5. Strategic Revisions: Plan for 2 full revisions before Prelims
6. Focus Areas: Concept clarity, Speed, Accuracy & Exam Strategy
7. Prelims Radar – Final Lap Strategy: Last-minute high-yield topic revisions
8. Launch Date: February 20, 2025
One Program. One Goal. Prelims 2025 Success. Join PRECAP Now!
Program Details
https://officersiasacademy.com/precap-2025/
Regards
Officers IAS Academy
PRECAP 2025 – The Ultimate Prelims Revision Program
1. Duration: 50 Days – Intensive, structured, and result-oriented
2. Expert-Led Masterclasses: Exclusive sessions by Rangarajan (Ex-IAS) & faculty
3. Coverage: Complete syllabus revision for General Studies & CSAT
4. Tests: 26 high-quality Practice Tests (Full-length + Sectional)
5. Strategic Revisions: Plan for 2 full revisions before Prelims
6. Focus Areas: Concept clarity, Speed, Accuracy & Exam Strategy
7. Prelims Radar – Final Lap Strategy: Last-minute high-yield topic revisions
8. Launch Date: February 20, 2025
One Program. One Goal. Prelims 2025 Success. Join PRECAP Now!
Program Details
https://officersiasacademy.com/precap-2025/
Regards
Officers IAS Academy
1. Consider the following statements about e-SHRAM portal
1) It is a national portal launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2) It aims to create a centralized national database of unorganized workers.
3) It is mandatory for all informal workers to register on the portal.
4) Only workers above the age of 18 are eligible to register on e-SHRAM.
1) It is a national portal launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2) It aims to create a centralized national database of unorganized workers.
3) It is mandatory for all informal workers to register on the portal.
4) Only workers above the age of 18 are eligible to register on e-SHRAM.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
4%
A. Only one
44%
B. Only two
38%
C. Only three
14%
D. All four
Answer: B
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: In 2021, the Ministry of Labour and Employment unveiled the
e-shram portal to register 38 crore unorganized workers, such as construction
laborers, migrant workforce, street vendors and domestic workers, among others.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Unorganized workers are required to volunteer on their
own to register on the e-Shram portal using their Aadhaar cards and bank account
details. Hence it is not mandatory.
● The workers will be issued an e-Shram card containing a 12 digit unique number.
This is a permanent number and valid for lifetime.
● Statement 2 is correct: The portal would lead to the creation of a national database of
unorganized workers. In future, it is envisaged that all the social security benefits to
unorganized workers will be delivered through this portal. In emergency and national
pandemic like situations, this database may be utilized to provide necessary assistance
to the eligible unorganized workers.
● Apart from being Aadhaar-linked, it will collect details of the name, occupation, address,
educational qualification, skill types and family of the registered workers.
● The portal was developed by the Ministry of Labour & Employment, in technical
collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (an attached office under the
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology).
● Statement 4 is incorrect: The portal is open to workers engaged in the unorganized
sector and aged between 16 and 59.
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: In 2021, the Ministry of Labour and Employment unveiled the
e-shram portal to register 38 crore unorganized workers, such as construction
laborers, migrant workforce, street vendors and domestic workers, among others.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Unorganized workers are required to volunteer on their
own to register on the e-Shram portal using their Aadhaar cards and bank account
details. Hence it is not mandatory.
● The workers will be issued an e-Shram card containing a 12 digit unique number.
This is a permanent number and valid for lifetime.
● Statement 2 is correct: The portal would lead to the creation of a national database of
unorganized workers. In future, it is envisaged that all the social security benefits to
unorganized workers will be delivered through this portal. In emergency and national
pandemic like situations, this database may be utilized to provide necessary assistance
to the eligible unorganized workers.
● Apart from being Aadhaar-linked, it will collect details of the name, occupation, address,
educational qualification, skill types and family of the registered workers.
● The portal was developed by the Ministry of Labour & Employment, in technical
collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (an attached office under the
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology).
● Statement 4 is incorrect: The portal is open to workers engaged in the unorganized
sector and aged between 16 and 59.
2. Consider the following statements with respect to Payments Banks.
1. Payments banks are expected to increase the penetration level of financial services to the
remote areas of the country.
2. Deposits mobilized by the payments bank are covered under the deposit insurance scheme
of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (DICGC).
3. They cannot offer loans.
4. They cannot issue credit cards.
1. Payments banks are expected to increase the penetration level of financial services to the
remote areas of the country.
2. Deposits mobilized by the payments bank are covered under the deposit insurance scheme
of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (DICGC).
3. They cannot offer loans.
4. They cannot issue credit cards.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
17%
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
23%
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
8%
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
52%
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation
● Payments banks are the new age banks with limited facilities. These banks mostly operate
through the small vendors and shopkeepers. It exists in between the mobile wallet and
regular banks.
● Payments banks are permitted to set up their own outlets such as branches, Automated
Teller Machines (ATMs), Business Correspondents (BCs), etc. to undertake only certain
restricted activities permitted to banks under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
● A payments bank provides following services to its customers:
○ Accept demand deposits
○ Remittance services
○ Mobile payments
○ Fund transfers
○ Statement 4 is correct: Debit card and associated services (Payments Banks cannot
issue credit cards)
○ Net Banking services
○ Sell third-party financial products like insurance and mutual funds
● However, payments banks cannot undertake the following activities:
○ Statement 3 is correct: They cannot undertake lending activities
○ They cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services
activities
○ They are not eligible to accept NRI deposits.
Objectives
● The main objective of payments banks is to widen the spread of payment and financial
services to small business, low-income households, and the migrant labour workforce in a
secured technology-driven environment.
● Statement 1 is correct: With payments banks, RBI seeks to increase the penetration level
of financial services to the remote areas of the country.
● The Reserve Bank expects payments banks to target India’s migrant labourers, low-income
households and small businesses, offering savings accounts and remittance services with a
low transaction cost.
Eligible promoters
● Existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers authorised under the
Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
● Other entities such as individuals / professionals; Non-Banking Finance Companies
(NBFCs), corporate Business Correspondents (BCs), mobile telephone companies,
supermarket chains, companies, real sector cooperatives; that are owned and controlled by
residents; and public sector entities may apply to set up payments banks.
Regulations
● Payments banks are registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act,
2013, and licensed under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
● Statement 2 is correct: Deposits mobilised by the payments bank are covered under the
deposit insurance scheme of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
of India (DICGC).
● Apart from amounts maintained as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with RBI on its outside
demand and time liabilities, Payments banks are required to invest minimum 75 per cent
of its "demand deposit balances" in Government securities/Treasury Bills with maturity
up to one year that are recognized by RBI as eligible securities for maintenance of Statutory
Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and hold maximum 25 per cent in current and time / fixed
deposits with other scheduled commercial banks for operational purposes and liquidity
management.
● The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crore, of
which the promoter’s contribution would be minimum 40 percent of paid-up equity capital
for the first 5 years of commencement of the business.
● The foreign shareholding in the payments bank would be as per the Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) policy for private sector banks as amended from time to time. As per
the current FDI policy, the aggregate foreign investment in a private sector bank from all
sources will be allowed upto a maximum of 74 per cent of the paid-up capital of the bank.
Explanation
● Payments banks are the new age banks with limited facilities. These banks mostly operate
through the small vendors and shopkeepers. It exists in between the mobile wallet and
regular banks.
● Payments banks are permitted to set up their own outlets such as branches, Automated
Teller Machines (ATMs), Business Correspondents (BCs), etc. to undertake only certain
restricted activities permitted to banks under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
● A payments bank provides following services to its customers:
○ Accept demand deposits
○ Remittance services
○ Mobile payments
○ Fund transfers
○ Statement 4 is correct: Debit card and associated services (Payments Banks cannot
issue credit cards)
○ Net Banking services
○ Sell third-party financial products like insurance and mutual funds
● However, payments banks cannot undertake the following activities:
○ Statement 3 is correct: They cannot undertake lending activities
○ They cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services
activities
○ They are not eligible to accept NRI deposits.
Objectives
● The main objective of payments banks is to widen the spread of payment and financial
services to small business, low-income households, and the migrant labour workforce in a
secured technology-driven environment.
● Statement 1 is correct: With payments banks, RBI seeks to increase the penetration level
of financial services to the remote areas of the country.
● The Reserve Bank expects payments banks to target India’s migrant labourers, low-income
households and small businesses, offering savings accounts and remittance services with a
low transaction cost.
Eligible promoters
● Existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers authorised under the
Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
● Other entities such as individuals / professionals; Non-Banking Finance Companies
(NBFCs), corporate Business Correspondents (BCs), mobile telephone companies,
supermarket chains, companies, real sector cooperatives; that are owned and controlled by
residents; and public sector entities may apply to set up payments banks.
Regulations
● Payments banks are registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act,
2013, and licensed under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
● Statement 2 is correct: Deposits mobilised by the payments bank are covered under the
deposit insurance scheme of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
of India (DICGC).
● Apart from amounts maintained as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with RBI on its outside
demand and time liabilities, Payments banks are required to invest minimum 75 per cent
of its "demand deposit balances" in Government securities/Treasury Bills with maturity
up to one year that are recognized by RBI as eligible securities for maintenance of Statutory
Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and hold maximum 25 per cent in current and time / fixed
deposits with other scheduled commercial banks for operational purposes and liquidity
management.
● The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crore, of
which the promoter’s contribution would be minimum 40 percent of paid-up equity capital
for the first 5 years of commencement of the business.
● The foreign shareholding in the payments bank would be as per the Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) policy for private sector banks as amended from time to time. As per
the current FDI policy, the aggregate foreign investment in a private sector bank from all
sources will be allowed upto a maximum of 74 per cent of the paid-up capital of the bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
A. 1 only
63%
B. 2 only
28%
C. Both 1 and 2
4%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements about Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)
1) The Prime Minister is the Chairman of DAC.
2) It is the highest decision-making body in the defense ministry for deciding on new policies
and capital acquisitions
1) The Prime Minister is the Chairman of DAC.
2) It is the highest decision-making body in the defense ministry for deciding on new policies
and capital acquisitions
Answer: B
Explanation
● Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is constituted under the Ministry of Defence (MoD)
for overall guidance of the defence procurement planning process.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Defence Minister is the Chairman of DAC. Its members
include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and Chiefs of triservices.
● Statement 2 is correct: The DAC is the highest decision-making body in the defence ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services and the Indian Coast Guard.
● The objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the Armed Forces in terms of capabilities sought, and time frame prescribed, by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources.
Explanation
● Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is constituted under the Ministry of Defence (MoD)
for overall guidance of the defence procurement planning process.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Defence Minister is the Chairman of DAC. Its members
include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and Chiefs of triservices.
● Statement 2 is correct: The DAC is the highest decision-making body in the defence ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services and the Indian Coast Guard.
● The objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the Armed Forces in terms of capabilities sought, and time frame prescribed, by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources.
4. Consider the following statements about the Open Network for Digital Commerce
1) It is a government-backed initiative aimed at democratizing e-commerce in India.
2) It is intended to reduce the dominance of large e-commerce companies in the Indian
market.
3) It is mandatory for all the existing digital commerce applications and platforms to be a part
of the ONDC network.
1) It is a government-backed initiative aimed at democratizing e-commerce in India.
2) It is intended to reduce the dominance of large e-commerce companies in the Indian
market.
3) It is mandatory for all the existing digital commerce applications and platforms to be a part
of the ONDC network.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
A. Only one
80%
B. Only two
14%
C. All three
0%
D. None