Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Anonymous Quiz
12%
A. 1 only
22%
B. 2 only
61%
C. Both 1 and 2
5%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. With reference to the National Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT), consider the following
statements.
1. It was established under the Companies Act, 2013.
2. It is a quasi-judicial authority which settles disputes which are related to corporate cases.
3. It acts as the appellate authority under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
statements.
1. It was established under the Companies Act, 2013.
2. It is a quasi-judicial authority which settles disputes which are related to corporate cases.
3. It acts as the appellate authority under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
22%
A. 1 and 2 only
10%
B. 2 only
34%
C. 2 and 3 only
33%
D. 1, 2 amd 3
Answer: C
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Additional-Tier 1 (AT1) bonds are perpetual debt instruments
issued by banks to raise money and build up their core equity capital.
○ A perpetual instrument is one with no maturity date, implying that the issuer – a
bank in this case – does not pay the principal amount back to investors but
makes periodic interest payments throughout the life of the bond.
● In practice, however, AT-1 bonds typically come with a ‘call option’, which means that the
bank issuing these instruments can redeem them or repay investors after a specified
period.
● Statement 2 is correct: For AT-1 bonds, banks typically shell out a higher rate of interest.
● However, there are certain features of the instrument that make them riskier than
several other bonds.
● If a bank faces financial stress, it can hold off interest payments or pay a lower amount.
● Most alarming for investors is the clause which permits banks to write off AT-1 bonds in
case of severe financial stress.
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Additional-Tier 1 (AT1) bonds are perpetual debt instruments
issued by banks to raise money and build up their core equity capital.
○ A perpetual instrument is one with no maturity date, implying that the issuer – a
bank in this case – does not pay the principal amount back to investors but
makes periodic interest payments throughout the life of the bond.
● In practice, however, AT-1 bonds typically come with a ‘call option’, which means that the
bank issuing these instruments can redeem them or repay investors after a specified
period.
● Statement 2 is correct: For AT-1 bonds, banks typically shell out a higher rate of interest.
● However, there are certain features of the instrument that make them riskier than
several other bonds.
● If a bank faces financial stress, it can hold off interest payments or pay a lower amount.
● Most alarming for investors is the clause which permits banks to write off AT-1 bonds in
case of severe financial stress.
3. Dachigam National Park located in Jammu and Kashmir is a critical habitat for which of the following species?
choose the correct answer
Anonymous Quiz
18%
A) Great Indian Bustards
65%
B) Hanguls
10%
C) Olive Ridley turtles
7%
D) Black necked cranes
Answer: A
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) was established under the
Companies Act 2013 and was constituted in 2016 to handle the laws regarding the
companies.
● Statement 2 is correct: It operates as a quasi-judicial authority which handles the
structures, laws and settles disputes which are related to corporate cases. The NCLT is
formed on Article 245 in the constitution of India.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the NCLT is
the Adjudicating Authority. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
acts as the appellate authority.
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) was established under the
Companies Act 2013 and was constituted in 2016 to handle the laws regarding the
companies.
● Statement 2 is correct: It operates as a quasi-judicial authority which handles the
structures, laws and settles disputes which are related to corporate cases. The NCLT is
formed on Article 245 in the constitution of India.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the NCLT is
the Adjudicating Authority. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
acts as the appellate authority.
Answer: B
Explanation
● Dachigam National Park is situated in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
● It encompasses nearly half of the catchment zone of the renowned Dal Lake.
● Located within the Zanskar mountain range of the Northwest Himalayan biogeographic
zone.
● The park harbors the last remaining genetically viable population of the Kashmir red deer,
also known as the Hangul Kashmir stag, which is classified as critically endangered by the IUCN.
● The vegetation within the park primarily consists of coniferous forests interspersed with broadleaf species such as apricot, walnut, chestnut, oak, willow, poplar, wild cherry, pear,
plum, peach, apple, chinar, birch, pine, and elm.
Explanation
● Dachigam National Park is situated in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
● It encompasses nearly half of the catchment zone of the renowned Dal Lake.
● Located within the Zanskar mountain range of the Northwest Himalayan biogeographic
zone.
● The park harbors the last remaining genetically viable population of the Kashmir red deer,
also known as the Hangul Kashmir stag, which is classified as critically endangered by the IUCN.
● The vegetation within the park primarily consists of coniferous forests interspersed with broadleaf species such as apricot, walnut, chestnut, oak, willow, poplar, wild cherry, pear,
plum, peach, apple, chinar, birch, pine, and elm.
4. The primary objective of the Tele Manas initiative launched by the Government of India is
5. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements:
1) The palm oil tree is native to West Africa.
2) Palm oil consists of more than 90 per cent share in total edible oil imports in India.
3) National Edible Oil Mission-Oil Palm is aimed at boosting domestic oilseed production.
1) The palm oil tree is native to West Africa.
2) Palm oil consists of more than 90 per cent share in total edible oil imports in India.
3) National Edible Oil Mission-Oil Palm is aimed at boosting domestic oilseed production.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
4%
a) 1 and 2 only
38%
b) 2 and 3 only
35%
c) 1 and 3 only
23%
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation
● Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative was
launched by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare to provide free tele-mental health
services all over the country.
● Launched in 2022, aims to enhance mental health service delivery nationwide.
● The Tele MANAS toll-free helpline numbers 14416 or 1-800-891-4416 offer multi-
language support and have been pivotal in facilitating communication between callers and
mental health professionals.
Structure
● Tele-MANAS comprises two tiers: trained counsellors at State Tele-MANAS cells who
provide immediate care, and mental health professionals (psychologists, clinicians,
psychiatrists) at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP) who provide specialist care.
● NIMHANS, Bengaluru, serves as the nodal centre while the International Institute of
Information Technology (IIITB) in Bengaluru is tasked with providing the technical know-how for the helpline.
Explanation
● Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative was
launched by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare to provide free tele-mental health
services all over the country.
● Launched in 2022, aims to enhance mental health service delivery nationwide.
● The Tele MANAS toll-free helpline numbers 14416 or 1-800-891-4416 offer multi-
language support and have been pivotal in facilitating communication between callers and
mental health professionals.
Structure
● Tele-MANAS comprises two tiers: trained counsellors at State Tele-MANAS cells who
provide immediate care, and mental health professionals (psychologists, clinicians,
psychiatrists) at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP) who provide specialist care.
● NIMHANS, Bengaluru, serves as the nodal centre while the International Institute of
Information Technology (IIITB) in Bengaluru is tasked with providing the technical know-how for the helpline.
Answer: C
Explanation
● The oil palm tree is native to West Africa, specifically to the region that includes countries
like Nigeria, Ghana, Ivory Coast, and Liberia. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● In recent decades, the cultivation of oil palm has expanded well beyond West Africa and is
now grown in various tropical regions around the world, including Southeast Asia and parts
of South America. It is a major global commodity, with applications in food products,
cosmetics, and industrial processes.
● Prime Minister Narendra Modi has launched the National Edible Oil Mission-Oil Palm
(NMEO-OP), with an investment of over Rs 11,000 crore to boost domestic oilseed
production and make the country self-sufficient in cooking oils. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
● With palm oil having 55 per cent share (not 90 percent) in total edible oil imports,
NMEO-OP would ensure that farmers get all facilities, from quality seeds to technology to
promote cultivation of palm and other oil seeds. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Significance
● The Prime Minister said while India has become self-sufficient or Atma Nirbhar in the
production of rice, wheat and sugar, it was not enough as the country is dependent on huge
imports of edible oils.
● India is the world's biggest vegetable oil importer. India produces less than half of the
roughly 2.5 million tonnes of edible oil that it consumes annually. It imports the rest,
buying palm oil from Indonesia and Malaysia, soyoil from Brazil and Argentina, and sunflower oil, mainly from Russia and Ukraine, with the import bill hovering around Rs 75,000 crore per year.
● The increase in cultivation of oil palm will not only benefit farmers but also consumers who
would get quality cooking oils at a cheaper rate.
● Besides, it would benefit processors and the entire value chain, thereby creating job\ opportunities.
Explanation
● The oil palm tree is native to West Africa, specifically to the region that includes countries
like Nigeria, Ghana, Ivory Coast, and Liberia. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● In recent decades, the cultivation of oil palm has expanded well beyond West Africa and is
now grown in various tropical regions around the world, including Southeast Asia and parts
of South America. It is a major global commodity, with applications in food products,
cosmetics, and industrial processes.
● Prime Minister Narendra Modi has launched the National Edible Oil Mission-Oil Palm
(NMEO-OP), with an investment of over Rs 11,000 crore to boost domestic oilseed
production and make the country self-sufficient in cooking oils. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
● With palm oil having 55 per cent share (not 90 percent) in total edible oil imports,
NMEO-OP would ensure that farmers get all facilities, from quality seeds to technology to
promote cultivation of palm and other oil seeds. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Significance
● The Prime Minister said while India has become self-sufficient or Atma Nirbhar in the
production of rice, wheat and sugar, it was not enough as the country is dependent on huge
imports of edible oils.
● India is the world's biggest vegetable oil importer. India produces less than half of the
roughly 2.5 million tonnes of edible oil that it consumes annually. It imports the rest,
buying palm oil from Indonesia and Malaysia, soyoil from Brazil and Argentina, and sunflower oil, mainly from Russia and Ukraine, with the import bill hovering around Rs 75,000 crore per year.
● The increase in cultivation of oil palm will not only benefit farmers but also consumers who
would get quality cooking oils at a cheaper rate.
● Besides, it would benefit processors and the entire value chain, thereby creating job\ opportunities.
Deadline Extended!
The last date for submission of applications for CS(P)-2025 & IFoS(P)-2025 has been extended till 18th February 2025 (6:00 PM).
Correction Window: Open from 19th to 25th February 2025 for any necessary edits.
Don't miss this golden opportunity—complete your application on time! For any doubts regarding application process, please fell free to reach our special Helpline number - +91 94459 10017 (10:00 AM - 6:00 PM).
#UPSC2025 #IAS2025 #IFoS2025 #UPSCPrelims #UPSCExam #UPSCMotivation #CivilServices #IASPreparation
The last date for submission of applications for CS(P)-2025 & IFoS(P)-2025 has been extended till 18th February 2025 (6:00 PM).
Correction Window: Open from 19th to 25th February 2025 for any necessary edits.
Don't miss this golden opportunity—complete your application on time! For any doubts regarding application process, please fell free to reach our special Helpline number - +91 94459 10017 (10:00 AM - 6:00 PM).
#UPSC2025 #IAS2025 #IFoS2025 #UPSCPrelims #UPSCExam #UPSCMotivation #CivilServices #IASPreparation
Mock Interview - Session #7
The Officers IAS Academy conducted a Mock Board on 08.02.25 as part of its Interview Programme in Chennai. With an esteemed panel of experts, aspirants received in-depth feedback and real-time interview experience to ace their UPSC Personality Test.
Panel Members:
Chairman: Mr. Har Sahay Meena IAS, Spl Secretary - Planning & Development Dept, TN
Member 1: Mr. Karunanidhi ITS, Retd. Principal General Manager, DoT/TCIL/BSNL
Member 2: Mr. Swaminathan, Air Vice Marshal
Member 3: Dr. Manohar G J, Academician
Member 4: Mr. Rhakul, Academician
The journey to becoming an IAS/IPS/IFS officer requires confidence, articulation, and presence of mind. Our Mock Board sessions help aspirants refine their responses and approach the UPSC Interview with clarity and composure.
Stay focused and be prepared for the final step!
#UPSCInterview #MockInterview #IASInterview #IPSInterview #IFSInterview #UPSC2025 #IAS2025
The Officers IAS Academy conducted a Mock Board on 08.02.25 as part of its Interview Programme in Chennai. With an esteemed panel of experts, aspirants received in-depth feedback and real-time interview experience to ace their UPSC Personality Test.
Panel Members:
Chairman: Mr. Har Sahay Meena IAS, Spl Secretary - Planning & Development Dept, TN
Member 1: Mr. Karunanidhi ITS, Retd. Principal General Manager, DoT/TCIL/BSNL
Member 2: Mr. Swaminathan, Air Vice Marshal
Member 3: Dr. Manohar G J, Academician
Member 4: Mr. Rhakul, Academician
The journey to becoming an IAS/IPS/IFS officer requires confidence, articulation, and presence of mind. Our Mock Board sessions help aspirants refine their responses and approach the UPSC Interview with clarity and composure.
Stay focused and be prepared for the final step!
#UPSCInterview #MockInterview #IASInterview #IPSInterview #IFSInterview #UPSC2025 #IAS2025
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).
1. MPC is responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rates in India.
2. All members of the MPC are appointed by the Central Government.
1. MPC is responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rates in India.
2. All members of the MPC are appointed by the Central Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
67%
(a) 1 only
9%
(b) 2 only
21%
(c) Both 1 and 2
3%
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a committee of the
RBI which is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy interest rate (repo
rate) to contain inflation within the specified target level.
▪️ Under the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework, the RBI targets to
contain Consumer Price Index (CPI) based inflation within 4 percent
with a tolerance band of (+/-) 2 percent for the period April 1, 2021, to
March 31, 2026.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The MPC has six members: RBI Governor (Chairperson),
RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one official nominated by the RBI
Board and remaining 3 members would represent the Government.
● The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year. The quorum for the
meeting is four members.
● The MPC makes decisions based on majority vote. In case of a tie, the RBI governor
will have a second or casting vote.
● Each Member of MPC writes a statement specifying the reasons for voting in favour
of, or against the proposed resolution.
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a committee of the
RBI which is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy interest rate (repo
rate) to contain inflation within the specified target level.
▪️ Under the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework, the RBI targets to
contain Consumer Price Index (CPI) based inflation within 4 percent
with a tolerance band of (+/-) 2 percent for the period April 1, 2021, to
March 31, 2026.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The MPC has six members: RBI Governor (Chairperson),
RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one official nominated by the RBI
Board and remaining 3 members would represent the Government.
● The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year. The quorum for the
meeting is four members.
● The MPC makes decisions based on majority vote. In case of a tie, the RBI governor
will have a second or casting vote.
● Each Member of MPC writes a statement specifying the reasons for voting in favour
of, or against the proposed resolution.
2. Consider the following statements about the International Criminal Court (ICC).
1. It is one of the principal organs of the United Nations.
2. It was established based on the Rome Statute.
3. India is a member of ICC.
1. It is one of the principal organs of the United Nations.
2. It was established based on the Rome Statute.
3. India is a member of ICC.