Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statements 1 & 2 are correct: PM Vishwakarma is a Central Sector Scheme launched
recently to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with
their hands and tools.
● It is a new scheme with an outlay of Rs 13,000 crore and is fully funded by the Central
government. The Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprise is the nodal ministry of
PM Vishwakarma Yojana.
● The prime focus of PM Vishwakarma is at improving the quality as well as the reach of
products and services of artisans and craftspeople and to ensure that they are integrated
with the domestic and global value chains.
● Statement 3 is correct: The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople of
rural and urban areas across India.
● Eighteen traditional crafts will be covered under PM Vishwakarma. These include (i)
Carpenter; (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith ; (v) Hammer and Tool Kit
Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith; (viii) Potter; (ix) Sculptor, Stone breaker; (x)
Cobbler (Shoesmith/ Footwear artisan); (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom
Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber; (xv) Garland maker;
(xvi) Washerman; (xvii) Tailor; and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker.
Benefits of the scheme
● The Scheme envisages provisioning of the following benefits to the artisans and
craftspersons:
○ (i) Recognition: Recognition of artisans and craftspeople through PM Vishwakarma
certificate and ID card.
○ (ii) Skill Upgradation: Basic Training and Advanced Training, with a stipend of Rs.
500 per day;
○ (iii) Toolkit Incentive: A toolkit incentive of upto Rs. 15,000 in the form of e-
vouchers at the beginning of Basic Skill Training.
○ (iv) Credit Support: Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ of upto Rs. 3 lakh at a concessional rate of interest.
○ (v) Incentive for Digital Transaction: An amount of Re. 1 per digital transaction,
upto maximum 100 transactions monthly for each digital pay-out or receipt.
○ (vi) Marketing Support: Marketing support in the form of quality certification,
branding, onboarding on e-commerce platforms, advertising, publicity, etc.
Explanation:
● Statements 1 & 2 are correct: PM Vishwakarma is a Central Sector Scheme launched
recently to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with
their hands and tools.
● It is a new scheme with an outlay of Rs 13,000 crore and is fully funded by the Central
government. The Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprise is the nodal ministry of
PM Vishwakarma Yojana.
● The prime focus of PM Vishwakarma is at improving the quality as well as the reach of
products and services of artisans and craftspeople and to ensure that they are integrated
with the domestic and global value chains.
● Statement 3 is correct: The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople of
rural and urban areas across India.
● Eighteen traditional crafts will be covered under PM Vishwakarma. These include (i)
Carpenter; (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith ; (v) Hammer and Tool Kit
Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith; (viii) Potter; (ix) Sculptor, Stone breaker; (x)
Cobbler (Shoesmith/ Footwear artisan); (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom
Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber; (xv) Garland maker;
(xvi) Washerman; (xvii) Tailor; and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker.
Benefits of the scheme
● The Scheme envisages provisioning of the following benefits to the artisans and
craftspersons:
○ (i) Recognition: Recognition of artisans and craftspeople through PM Vishwakarma
certificate and ID card.
○ (ii) Skill Upgradation: Basic Training and Advanced Training, with a stipend of Rs.
500 per day;
○ (iii) Toolkit Incentive: A toolkit incentive of upto Rs. 15,000 in the form of e-
vouchers at the beginning of Basic Skill Training.
○ (iv) Credit Support: Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ of upto Rs. 3 lakh at a concessional rate of interest.
○ (v) Incentive for Digital Transaction: An amount of Re. 1 per digital transaction,
upto maximum 100 transactions monthly for each digital pay-out or receipt.
○ (vi) Marketing Support: Marketing support in the form of quality certification,
branding, onboarding on e-commerce platforms, advertising, publicity, etc.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
A. Only one
55%
B. Only two
34%
C. All the three
2%
D. None of the above
3. Consider the following statements about the GSLV Mk-III launch vehicle.
1. It is a four stage vehicle powered by a cryogenic engine in the upper stage.
2. GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 tonne class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer
Orbit or about 10 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit.
3. GSLV Mk III vehicle is proposed to be used in Gaganyaan mission.
1. It is a four stage vehicle powered by a cryogenic engine in the upper stage.
2. GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 tonne class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer
Orbit or about 10 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit.
3. GSLV Mk III vehicle is proposed to be used in Gaganyaan mission.
Answer: B
Explanation
● Statement 1 is incorrect: GSLV Mk-III is a three stage vehicle designed for catering the
need of carrying heavier communication satellites to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit
(GTO).
● GSLV Mk-III is powered by a core liquid engine, has two solid boosters that are used to
provide the massive thrust required during liftoff, and a cryogenic engine in the upper stage.
● Statement 2 is correct: GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 tonne class of satellites into GTO
or about 10 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
● Statement 3 is correct: GSLV Mk III vehicle is proposed to be used in Gaganyaan mission.
Explanation
● Statement 1 is incorrect: GSLV Mk-III is a three stage vehicle designed for catering the
need of carrying heavier communication satellites to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit
(GTO).
● GSLV Mk-III is powered by a core liquid engine, has two solid boosters that are used to
provide the massive thrust required during liftoff, and a cryogenic engine in the upper stage.
● Statement 2 is correct: GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 tonne class of satellites into GTO
or about 10 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
● Statement 3 is correct: GSLV Mk III vehicle is proposed to be used in Gaganyaan mission.
4. Among the following, which one is the largest producer of milk in the world?
5. Consider the following statements about the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948.
1. It sets out, for the first time, fundamental human rights to be universally protected.
2. India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
1. It sets out, for the first time, fundamental human rights to be universally protected.
2. India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
A. 1 only
18%
B. 2 only
71%
C. Both 1 and 2
2%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation
● India is the world’s top milk producer, with production having reached 230.58 million
tonnes during 2022-23.
● The average yield is, however, only 8.55 kg per animal per day for exotic/ crossbred
animals, and 3.44 kg/ animal/ day for indigenous/ nondescript animals.
● The yield in Punjab is 13.49 kg/ animal/ day (exotic/ crossbreed), but only 6.30 kg/
animal/ day in West Bengal.
● The national per capita availability of milk is 459 grams/ day, which is higher than the
global average of 323 g/ day.
● The top five milk producing states are UP (15.72%), Rajasthan (14.44%), Madhya
Pradesh (8.73%), Gujarat (7.49%), and Andhra Pradesh (6.70%), which together
contribute 53.08% of the country’s total milk production.
Explanation
● India is the world’s top milk producer, with production having reached 230.58 million
tonnes during 2022-23.
● The average yield is, however, only 8.55 kg per animal per day for exotic/ crossbred
animals, and 3.44 kg/ animal/ day for indigenous/ nondescript animals.
● The yield in Punjab is 13.49 kg/ animal/ day (exotic/ crossbreed), but only 6.30 kg/
animal/ day in West Bengal.
● The national per capita availability of milk is 459 grams/ day, which is higher than the
global average of 323 g/ day.
● The top five milk producing states are UP (15.72%), Rajasthan (14.44%), Madhya
Pradesh (8.73%), Gujarat (7.49%), and Andhra Pradesh (6.70%), which together
contribute 53.08% of the country’s total milk production.
Answer: C
Explanation
● The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, is a historic document which outlined the
rights and freedoms everyone is entitled to. It was the first international agreement on
the basic principles of human rights.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Declaration was proclaimed by the United Nations General
Assembly in Paris in 1948 as a common standard of achievement for all people and all
nations.
● It sets out fundamental human rights to be universally protected. The UDHR is widely
recognized as having inspired, and paved the way for, the adoption of more than seventy
human rights treaties, applied today on a permanent basis at global and regional levels.
● Statement 2 is correct: Nearly every state in the world has accepted the Declaration. India
is also a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
Explanation
● The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, is a historic document which outlined the
rights and freedoms everyone is entitled to. It was the first international agreement on
the basic principles of human rights.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Declaration was proclaimed by the United Nations General
Assembly in Paris in 1948 as a common standard of achievement for all people and all
nations.
● It sets out fundamental human rights to be universally protected. The UDHR is widely
recognized as having inspired, and paved the way for, the adoption of more than seventy
human rights treaties, applied today on a permanent basis at global and regional levels.
● Statement 2 is correct: Nearly every state in the world has accepted the Declaration. India
is also a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
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Dive deep into the world of UPSC preparation with our PYQs Answer Series!
Master the art of answering Previous Year Questions with expert guidance and detailed explanations.
Drop your answers in the comments, and let's learn together!
#OfficersIASAcademy #UPSCPreparation #PYQsAnswerSeries #LearnWithUs
1. How many of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal (NGT) is/are
correct?
1. It is a statutory body established under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. The Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908.
3. The Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 has been kept out
of NGT’s jurisdiction.
correct?
1. It is a statutory body established under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. The Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908.
3. The Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 has been kept out
of NGT’s jurisdiction.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Anonymous Quiz
41%
A) Only one
37%
B) Only two
14%
C) All the three
7%
D) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation
● It is a statutory body established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
● It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental
disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues.
● The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect.
● The Tribunal is vested with the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure
for discharging its functions but it can make its own rules.
● It provides speedy environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the
higher courts.
● New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and
Chennai shall be the other four places of sitting of the Tribunal.
Tribunal’s composition
● The Tribunal has a presence in five zones- North, Central, East, South and West. The
Principal Bench is situated in the North Zone, headquartered in Delhi.
● The Central zone bench is situated in Bhopal, East zone in Kolkata, South zone in Chennai
and West zone in Pune.
● The Tribunal is headed by the Chairperson who sits in the Principal Bench and has at least
ten but not more than twenty judicial members and at least ten but not more than twenty
expert members.
Tribunal’s Jurisdiction
● The NGT deals with civil cases under the seven laws related to the environment, these
include
○ The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
○ The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
○ The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
○ The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
○ The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
○ The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and
○ The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
● Two important acts – Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 have been kept out of
NGT’s jurisdiction. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● The Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving a substantial question relating to
the environment. Additionally, any person aggrieved by an order/direction of any of the
Appellate Authorities under the legislations mentioned above can also challenge them
before the National Green Tribunal.
Are decisions of the Tribunal final?
● The Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be
challenged before the Supreme Court within ninety days.
Explanation
● It is a statutory body established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
● It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental
disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues.
● The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect.
● The Tribunal is vested with the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure
for discharging its functions but it can make its own rules.
● It provides speedy environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the
higher courts.
● New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and
Chennai shall be the other four places of sitting of the Tribunal.
Tribunal’s composition
● The Tribunal has a presence in five zones- North, Central, East, South and West. The
Principal Bench is situated in the North Zone, headquartered in Delhi.
● The Central zone bench is situated in Bhopal, East zone in Kolkata, South zone in Chennai
and West zone in Pune.
● The Tribunal is headed by the Chairperson who sits in the Principal Bench and has at least
ten but not more than twenty judicial members and at least ten but not more than twenty
expert members.
Tribunal’s Jurisdiction
● The NGT deals with civil cases under the seven laws related to the environment, these
include
○ The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
○ The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
○ The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
○ The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
○ The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
○ The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and
○ The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
● Two important acts – Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 have been kept out of
NGT’s jurisdiction. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● The Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving a substantial question relating to
the environment. Additionally, any person aggrieved by an order/direction of any of the
Appellate Authorities under the legislations mentioned above can also challenge them
before the National Green Tribunal.
Are decisions of the Tribunal final?
● The Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be
challenged before the Supreme Court within ninety days.
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Gangetic river dolphins.
1. It is listed as critically endangered under the IUCN red list.
2. It can be naturally found only in the Ganges river system including the tributaries of Ganga.
1. It is listed as critically endangered under the IUCN red list.
2. It can be naturally found only in the Ganges river system including the tributaries of Ganga.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
25%
A. 1 only
20%
B. 2 only
30%
C. Both 1 and 2
25%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation
Both the statements are incorrect.
● Gangetic river dolphin is among the four freshwater dolphins in the world which is found in
parts of the Ganges-Meghna-Brahmaputra and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems in
India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.The Gangetic river dolphin is India's national aquatic
animal and is popularly known as ‘Susu’.
● Its presence indicates the health of the riverine ecosystem.
● The Gangetic Dolphins are generally blind and catch their prey in a unique manner. They
emit an ultrasonic sound which reaches the prey. The dolphin then registers this image in
its mind and subsequently catches hold of its prey.
● In addition to the species being India’s national aquatic animal, the Gangetic dolphin has
been notified by the Assam government as the state aquatic animal, too.
● The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has listed the Gangetic dolphin
as an endangered species (not critically endangered) in India.
● The Conservation Action Plan for the Gangetic Dolphin, 2010-2020, identified threats to
these dolphins that include the impact of river traffic, construction of irrigation canals and
depletion of their prey-base.
● It is classified under Schedule 1, Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 providing absolute
protection as offenses under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
● Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS) in Bihar’s Bhagalpur district is India’s
only sanctuary for its national aquatic animal.
Explanation
Both the statements are incorrect.
● Gangetic river dolphin is among the four freshwater dolphins in the world which is found in
parts of the Ganges-Meghna-Brahmaputra and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems in
India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.The Gangetic river dolphin is India's national aquatic
animal and is popularly known as ‘Susu’.
● Its presence indicates the health of the riverine ecosystem.
● The Gangetic Dolphins are generally blind and catch their prey in a unique manner. They
emit an ultrasonic sound which reaches the prey. The dolphin then registers this image in
its mind and subsequently catches hold of its prey.
● In addition to the species being India’s national aquatic animal, the Gangetic dolphin has
been notified by the Assam government as the state aquatic animal, too.
● The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has listed the Gangetic dolphin
as an endangered species (not critically endangered) in India.
● The Conservation Action Plan for the Gangetic Dolphin, 2010-2020, identified threats to
these dolphins that include the impact of river traffic, construction of irrigation canals and
depletion of their prey-base.
● It is classified under Schedule 1, Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 providing absolute
protection as offenses under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
● Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS) in Bihar’s Bhagalpur district is India’s
only sanctuary for its national aquatic animal.
choose the correct answer
Anonymous Quiz
4%
A. Article 14
22%
B. Article 19
41%
C. Article 20
32%
D. Article 21
3. The Right to Silence; is primarily associated with which Article of the Indian Constitution?