Seeing the strong interest from students, we are happy to announce the launch of our Comprehensive Current Affairs – Batch 2!
Classes will be conducted by Mr. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS, Director, Officers IAS Academy.
📅 Start Date: 3rd December 2025
This specialised program covers Polity, Economy, Geography, Environment, International Relations, Science & Tech, and more — giving you a solid edge for UPSC Prelims 2026.
Download the Brochure: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1KspsPSGAYp2EHBp0c9lKRPOGHEmFq4r9/view?usp=sharing
Register Now: https://imjo.in/QxBmqW
Those who missed the October batch can take this opportunity and join us to strengthen your preparation with expert guidance.
Classes will be conducted by Mr. Israel Jebasingh, Ex-IAS, Director, Officers IAS Academy.
📅 Start Date: 3rd December 2025
This specialised program covers Polity, Economy, Geography, Environment, International Relations, Science & Tech, and more — giving you a solid edge for UPSC Prelims 2026.
Download the Brochure: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1KspsPSGAYp2EHBp0c9lKRPOGHEmFq4r9/view?usp=sharing
Register Now: https://imjo.in/QxBmqW
Those who missed the October batch can take this opportunity and join us to strengthen your preparation with expert guidance.
Our Interview Programme – Session #1 Mock Board concluded last Saturday with exceptional participation and valuable insights shared by our esteemed panel.
With the momentum now set, registrations for the upcoming sessions are officially open.
Register Now: https://forms.gle/zEM4T4HG1n4g4Uag8
Secure your slot to experience a high-quality, UPSC-standard mock interview and receive focused, constructive feedback from distinguished experts who have guided many aspirants to success.
Limited seats. Maximum impact. Book your slot at the earliest.
With the momentum now set, registrations for the upcoming sessions are officially open.
Register Now: https://forms.gle/zEM4T4HG1n4g4Uag8
Secure your slot to experience a high-quality, UPSC-standard mock interview and receive focused, constructive feedback from distinguished experts who have guided many aspirants to success.
Limited seats. Maximum impact. Book your slot at the earliest.
With reference to the India–Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), consider the following statements:
1. CEPA negotiations aim to cover trade in goods, trade in services, investment, and
customs cooperation.
2. Oman is India’s largest trading partner in the Gulf region.
3. The proposed CEPA is expected to facilitate greater Indian access to Oman's energy
sector.
1. CEPA negotiations aim to cover trade in goods, trade in services, investment, and
customs cooperation.
2. Oman is India’s largest trading partner in the Gulf region.
3. The proposed CEPA is expected to facilitate greater Indian access to Oman's energy
sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Poll
50%
1 and 3 only
18%
1 only
13%
2 and 3 only
19%
1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct: CEPAs are comprehensive and include goods, services, investment,
and trade facilitation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UAE and Saudi Arabia rank higher than Oman in India’s Gulf
trade.
Statement 3 is correct: Energy cooperation is a key component of India - Oman economic
relations.
Statement 1 is correct: CEPAs are comprehensive and include goods, services, investment,
and trade facilitation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UAE and Saudi Arabia rank higher than Oman in India’s Gulf
trade.
Statement 3 is correct: Energy cooperation is a key component of India - Oman economic
relations.
With reference to the SHANTI Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:
1. The Bill accords statutory status to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB).
2. It repeals the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and replaces it with a new regulatory framework.
3. Nuclear safety principles under the Bill continue to be governed by the doctrine of “safety first, production next”.
1. The Bill accords statutory status to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB).
2. It repeals the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and replaces it with a new regulatory framework.
3. Nuclear safety principles under the Bill continue to be governed by the doctrine of “safety first, production next”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Poll
14%
1 and 2 only
36%
1 and 3 only
17%
2 and 3 only
32%
1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is correct: The SHANTI Bill, 2025 accords statutory status to the Atomic Energy
Regulatory Board (AERB), making it an independent nuclear safety regulator with defined
powers for licensing, inspection, and enforcement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The SHANTI Bill, 2025 does not repeal the Atomic Energy Act,
1962; instead, it consolidates and rationalizes provisions from the Atomic Energy Act, 1962
and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, without repealing the former. The Bill
creates a unified and modern regulatory framework but retains the Atomic Energy Act, 1962
as the foundational law, updating and streamlining its provisions.
Statement 3 is correct: The nuclear safety principles under the SHANTI Bill continue to be
governed by the doctrine of “safety first, production next,” ensuring that safety standards
remain uncompromised and are aligned with global best practices.
Statement 1 is correct: The SHANTI Bill, 2025 accords statutory status to the Atomic Energy
Regulatory Board (AERB), making it an independent nuclear safety regulator with defined
powers for licensing, inspection, and enforcement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The SHANTI Bill, 2025 does not repeal the Atomic Energy Act,
1962; instead, it consolidates and rationalizes provisions from the Atomic Energy Act, 1962
and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, without repealing the former. The Bill
creates a unified and modern regulatory framework but retains the Atomic Energy Act, 1962
as the foundational law, updating and streamlining its provisions.
Statement 3 is correct: The nuclear safety principles under the SHANTI Bill continue to be
governed by the doctrine of “safety first, production next,” ensuring that safety standards
remain uncompromised and are aligned with global best practices.
With reference to Bekal Fort, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in the northernmost district of Kerala.
2. It is a coastal fort overlooking the Arabian Sea.
3. It lies in the Western Ghats Mountain range.
1. It is located in the northernmost district of Kerala.
2. It is a coastal fort overlooking the Arabian Sea.
3. It lies in the Western Ghats Mountain range.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
25%
1 and 3 only
33%
2 and 3 only
9%
1 and 3 only
33%
1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct.
Bekal Fort is situated in Kasaragod district, which is the northernmost district of Kerala.
Hence, the statement regarding its location is accurate.
Statement 2 is correct.
The fort is a coastal fort constructed along the Arabian Sea coast. Its strategic design allows a
clear view of the sea, which was historically useful for monitoring maritime activities.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Bekal Fort does not lie in the Western Ghats Mountain range. Instead, it is located on the
western coastal plain at a low elevation near sea level. The Western Ghats run inland and are
geographically distinct from the coastal belt where Bekal Fort is located.
Statement 1 is correct.
Bekal Fort is situated in Kasaragod district, which is the northernmost district of Kerala.
Hence, the statement regarding its location is accurate.
Statement 2 is correct.
The fort is a coastal fort constructed along the Arabian Sea coast. Its strategic design allows a
clear view of the sea, which was historically useful for monitoring maritime activities.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Bekal Fort does not lie in the Western Ghats Mountain range. Instead, it is located on the
western coastal plain at a low elevation near sea level. The Western Ghats run inland and are
geographically distinct from the coastal belt where Bekal Fort is located.
With reference to the Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022, consider the following
statements:
1. The rules apply only to Electric Vehicle batteries and industrial batteries.
2. The rules are based on the concept of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR).
3. Producers are required to use domestically recycled materials in new batteries.
statements:
1. The rules apply only to Electric Vehicle batteries and industrial batteries.
2. The rules are based on the concept of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR).
3. Producers are required to use domestically recycled materials in new batteries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
67%
2 and 3 only
14%
1 and 2 only
7%
3 only
12%
1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022 apply to all types of batteries, including Electric
Vehicle batteries, portable batteries, automotive batteries, and industrial batteries.
Statement 2 is correct: The rules mandate Extended Producer Responsibility, meaning
producers (including importers) are responsible for the collection, recycling, and refurbishment
of waste batteries.
Statement 3 is correct: The rules require producers to use a minimum amount of
domestically recycled materials in the manufacture of new batteries, as clarified by CPCB and
specified in the rules.
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022 apply to all types of batteries, including Electric
Vehicle batteries, portable batteries, automotive batteries, and industrial batteries.
Statement 2 is correct: The rules mandate Extended Producer Responsibility, meaning
producers (including importers) are responsible for the collection, recycling, and refurbishment
of waste batteries.
Statement 3 is correct: The rules require producers to use a minimum amount of
domestically recycled materials in the manufacture of new batteries, as clarified by CPCB and
specified in the rules.
With reference to the Sahitya Akademi and its awards, consider the following statements:
1. The Sahitya Akademi awards are given only for works originally written in languages
listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The Sahitya Akademi is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
3. English and Rajasthani are recognised by the Sahitya Akademi even though they are
not listed in the Eighth Schedule.
4. It awards the highest civilian literary honour in India.
1. The Sahitya Akademi awards are given only for works originally written in languages
listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The Sahitya Akademi is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
3. English and Rajasthani are recognised by the Sahitya Akademi even though they are
not listed in the Eighth Schedule.
4. It awards the highest civilian literary honour in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
13%
1 and 2 only
37%
3 only
22%
1 and 4 only
29%
2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (B)
Statement 1is Incorrect: Sahitya Akademi recognises 24 languages, not limited strictly to the
Eighth Schedule. Besides the 22 constitutional languages, English and Rajasthani are also
recognised.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Sahitya Akademi is not a statutory body.
It is registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, making it a non-statutory
autonomous body.
Statement 3 is Correct: English and Rajasthani are not in the Eighth Schedule, yet they are
officially recognised by the Akademi.
Statement 4 is Incorrect: The highest literary honour is Jnanpith Award, not Sahitya
Akademi Award. It functions as an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Culture.
Statement 1is Incorrect: Sahitya Akademi recognises 24 languages, not limited strictly to the
Eighth Schedule. Besides the 22 constitutional languages, English and Rajasthani are also
recognised.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Sahitya Akademi is not a statutory body.
It is registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, making it a non-statutory
autonomous body.
Statement 3 is Correct: English and Rajasthani are not in the Eighth Schedule, yet they are
officially recognised by the Akademi.
Statement 4 is Incorrect: The highest literary honour is Jnanpith Award, not Sahitya
Akademi Award. It functions as an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Culture.
Assertion: Under the Agnipath Scheme, Agniveers are not entitled to pensionary or gratuity
benefits after completing four years of service in the armed forces.
Reason: The Agnipath Scheme is designed to induct soldiers primarily for short-term service in
order to reduce the long-term financial burden of salaries and pensions on the defence budget.
benefits after completing four years of service in the armed forces.
Reason: The Agnipath Scheme is designed to induct soldiers primarily for short-term service in
order to reduce the long-term financial burden of salaries and pensions on the defence budget.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Anonymous Quiz
63%
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
14%
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
9%
A is true, but R is false
14%
A is false, but R is true
Answer: (A)
Assertion (A) is correct
Under the Agnipath Scheme, Agniveers serve for four years and are not eligible for pension
or gratuity benefits. Instead, they receive a Seva Nidhi package as a one-time, tax-free amount
upon exit.
Reason (R) is correct
One of the explicit objectives of the Agnipath Scheme is to reduce the recurring expenditure
on defence salaries and pensions, thereby freeing resources for military modernisation.
The absence of pensionary benefits for Agniveers directly flows from the scheme’s objective of
minimising long-term fiscal liabilities. Hence, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Assertion (A) is correct
Under the Agnipath Scheme, Agniveers serve for four years and are not eligible for pension
or gratuity benefits. Instead, they receive a Seva Nidhi package as a one-time, tax-free amount
upon exit.
Reason (R) is correct
One of the explicit objectives of the Agnipath Scheme is to reduce the recurring expenditure
on defence salaries and pensions, thereby freeing resources for military modernisation.
The absence of pensionary benefits for Agniveers directly flows from the scheme’s objective of
minimising long-term fiscal liabilities. Hence, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.