Answer: (D)
Inference 1 is correct: Statement 1 defines an NPA as an account overdue for more than 90 days. Therefore, a temporary delay (e.g., a short delay of 15 or 30 days) is within the grace window and does not automatically trigger NPA classification.
Inference 2 is correct: Statement 2 notes that the SARFAESI Act, 2002 allows secured creditors to enforce security interests without first obtaining a court decree. By bypassing long judicial/court proceedings, this legal framework directly aims to reduce delays in
recovering secured loans.
Inference 3 is correct: Statement 3 mentions that banks categorize NPAs into three distinct classes (Substandard, Doubtful, and Loss Assets) based on default duration and severity. Categorizing assets based on how long or severely they have defaulted directly
allows banks to distinguish between differing levels of credit risk and provisioning requirements.
Since all three inferences logically follow from the given statements, 1, 2 and 3 is the correct option.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Inference 1 is correct: Statement 1 defines an NPA as an account overdue for more than 90 days. Therefore, a temporary delay (e.g., a short delay of 15 or 30 days) is within the grace window and does not automatically trigger NPA classification.
Inference 2 is correct: Statement 2 notes that the SARFAESI Act, 2002 allows secured creditors to enforce security interests without first obtaining a court decree. By bypassing long judicial/court proceedings, this legal framework directly aims to reduce delays in
recovering secured loans.
Inference 3 is correct: Statement 3 mentions that banks categorize NPAs into three distinct classes (Substandard, Doubtful, and Loss Assets) based on default duration and severity. Categorizing assets based on how long or severely they have defaulted directly
allows banks to distinguish between differing levels of credit risk and provisioning requirements.
Since all three inferences logically follow from the given statements, 1, 2 and 3 is the correct option.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the PM-KUSUM Scheme:
1. The PM-KUSUM Scheme was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) to provide energy and water security to farmers, enhance their income and reduce dependence on diesel in agriculture.
2. The scheme allows renewable energy plants on barren/fallow land by farmers, FPOs, cooperatives and Panchayats.
3. The scheme covers standalone solar pumps and solarisation of grid-connected agriculture pumps.
1. The PM-KUSUM Scheme was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) to provide energy and water security to farmers, enhance their income and reduce dependence on diesel in agriculture.
2. The scheme allows renewable energy plants on barren/fallow land by farmers, FPOs, cooperatives and Panchayats.
3. The scheme covers standalone solar pumps and solarisation of grid-connected agriculture pumps.
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Answer: (A)
● PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It aims to provide energy and water security to farmers, increase farmers’ income, reduce diesel dependence and promote renewable energy. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
● Under Component A, the scheme promotes setting up of decentralised renewable energy power plants on barren/fallow land by:
○ Individual farmers
○ Groups of farmers
○ Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs)
○ Cooperatives
○ Panchayats.
The electricity generated can be sold to DISCOMs. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
● PM-KUSUM has three components:
○ Component A: Setting up of decentralised grid-connected solar/renewable
energy power plants on barren/fallow land.
○ Component B: Installation of standalone solar agriculture pumps for farmers in off-grid areas.
○ Component C: Solarisation of grid-connected agriculture pumps to help farmers use solar energy for irrigation and sell surplus power to DISCOMs. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore , option A is the correct answer.
● PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It aims to provide energy and water security to farmers, increase farmers’ income, reduce diesel dependence and promote renewable energy. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
● Under Component A, the scheme promotes setting up of decentralised renewable energy power plants on barren/fallow land by:
○ Individual farmers
○ Groups of farmers
○ Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs)
○ Cooperatives
○ Panchayats.
The electricity generated can be sold to DISCOMs. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
● PM-KUSUM has three components:
○ Component A: Setting up of decentralised grid-connected solar/renewable
energy power plants on barren/fallow land.
○ Component B: Installation of standalone solar agriculture pumps for farmers in off-grid areas.
○ Component C: Solarisation of grid-connected agriculture pumps to help farmers use solar energy for irrigation and sell surplus power to DISCOMs. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore , option A is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the PM E-DRIVE Scheme of the Government of India:
I. PM E-DRIVE promotes the adoption of electric mobility through demand incentives and supporting infrastructure.
II. The scheme covers different categories of electric vehicles along with supporting charging infrastructure.
III. PM E-DRIVE supports sustainable urban transport and the broader vision of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
1. Statement II shows the coverage through which the objective stated in Statement I is implemented.
2. Statement III broadens the significance of Statement I by linking electric mobility with sustainability and national development goals.
3. Statement I focuses on immediate implementation measures, whereas Statement III highlights broader long-term developmental outcomes associated with the scheme.
I. PM E-DRIVE promotes the adoption of electric mobility through demand incentives and supporting infrastructure.
II. The scheme covers different categories of electric vehicles along with supporting charging infrastructure.
III. PM E-DRIVE supports sustainable urban transport and the broader vision of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
1. Statement II shows the coverage through which the objective stated in Statement I is implemented.
2. Statement III broadens the significance of Statement I by linking electric mobility with sustainability and national development goals.
3. Statement I focuses on immediate implementation measures, whereas Statement III highlights broader long-term developmental outcomes associated with the scheme.
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Answer: (B)
Relationship 1 is Correct: Statement I states the objective of PM E-DRIVE, namely promoting electric mobility through incentives and supporting infrastructure. Statement II explains the coverage of the scheme, including different categories of electric vehicles and charging infrastructure. Therefore, Statement II represents the operational reach through which the objective in Statement I is implemented.
Relationship 2 is Correct: Statement III connects PM E-DRIVE with sustainable urban transport, Atmanirbhar Bharat, and Viksit Bharat 2047. These are broader developmental and sustainability goals. Hence, Statement III extends the significance of Statement I
beyond the immediate objective of EV adoption.
Relationship 3 is Correct: Statement I focuses on the immediate policy instruments of the scheme, such as demand incentives and infrastructure support. Statement III highlights the wider long-term outcomes that the scheme is expected to contribute to, including sustainability and national development. Since Statement III expands the scope rather than contradicting Statement I, the relationship is considered correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
Relationship 1 is Correct: Statement I states the objective of PM E-DRIVE, namely promoting electric mobility through incentives and supporting infrastructure. Statement II explains the coverage of the scheme, including different categories of electric vehicles and charging infrastructure. Therefore, Statement II represents the operational reach through which the objective in Statement I is implemented.
Relationship 2 is Correct: Statement III connects PM E-DRIVE with sustainable urban transport, Atmanirbhar Bharat, and Viksit Bharat 2047. These are broader developmental and sustainability goals. Hence, Statement III extends the significance of Statement I
beyond the immediate objective of EV adoption.
Relationship 3 is Correct: Statement I focuses on the immediate policy instruments of the scheme, such as demand incentives and infrastructure support. Statement III highlights the wider long-term outcomes that the scheme is expected to contribute to, including sustainability and national development. Since Statement III expands the scope rather than contradicting Statement I, the relationship is considered correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh launched India’s first dedicated Department of Military Medicine, marking a significant step in strengthening defence healthcare, medical research, and operational medical support.
The department supports India’s vision of building self-reliance in defence healthcare, improving operational readiness, and adopting cutting-edge medical technologies.
Important for UPSC: Defence Healthcare, Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS), Military Medicine, Disaster Management, Defence Modernisation, and Medical Research.
The department supports India’s vision of building self-reliance in defence healthcare, improving operational readiness, and adopting cutting-edge medical technologies.
Important for UPSC: Defence Healthcare, Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS), Military Medicine, Disaster Management, Defence Modernisation, and Medical Research.
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 amends the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 to strengthen safeguards against examination malpractices and improve the integrity of public recruitment examinations.
The amendment strengthens coordination with Central and State investigating agencies to tackle paper leaks, impersonation, cyber-enabled cheating, and organized examination-related crimes.
Important for UPSC: Governance, Public Examinations, Anti-Cheating Laws, Recruitment Reforms, Cybercrime, and Administrative Reforms.
The amendment strengthens coordination with Central and State investigating agencies to tackle paper leaks, impersonation, cyber-enabled cheating, and organized examination-related crimes.
Important for UPSC: Governance, Public Examinations, Anti-Cheating Laws, Recruitment Reforms, Cybercrime, and Administrative Reforms.
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Use your existing knowledge of GS, Current Affairs, and CSAT to easily crack Banking, SSC, and Railways.
Massive Syllabus Overlap: Your core subjects (Economy, Polity, History, and CSAT) cover ≈ 75% of these exams.
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Use your existing knowledge of GS, Current Affairs, and CSAT to easily crack Banking, SSC, and Railways.
Massive Syllabus Overlap: Your core subjects (Economy, Polity, History, and CSAT) cover ≈ 75% of these exams.
3 Exams, 1 Prep: Get targeted training for Banking, SSC, and Railways without starting from scratch.
Course Starts on: 19.08.26
Course Duration: 5 Months
To register : https://forms.gle/Bn7JgheJxU816ENWA
For admission assistance,
contact: +91 7358301555 / +91 9363730226
Nvidia- a major semiconductor company has partnered with Microsoft to launch a new chip, called the Nvidia
RTX Spark to power computers made by the likes of Dell, Asus, and HP.
The chip combines a 20-core NVIDIA Grace CPU (co-developed with MediaTek) and a Blackwell RTX GPU with up to 6,144 CUDA cores, delivering up to 1 petaflop of AI performance.
Important for UPSC: Artificial Intelligence (AI), Semiconductors, High-Performance Computing (HPC), On-device AI, Digital Technologies, and Emerging Technologies.
RTX Spark to power computers made by the likes of Dell, Asus, and HP.
The chip combines a 20-core NVIDIA Grace CPU (co-developed with MediaTek) and a Blackwell RTX GPU with up to 6,144 CUDA cores, delivering up to 1 petaflop of AI performance.
Important for UPSC: Artificial Intelligence (AI), Semiconductors, High-Performance Computing (HPC), On-device AI, Digital Technologies, and Emerging Technologies.
Glaw Lake has been designated as India's 101st Ramsar Site, becoming the first Ramsar Site in Arunachal Pradesh. The announcement was made by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Ramsar designation recognizes the lake as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention, 1971, promoting its conservation and wise use.
Important for UPSC: Ramsar Convention, Wetland Conservation, Eastern Himalayas, Kamlang Tiger Reserve, Biodiversity, and Environmental Governance.
Ramsar designation recognizes the lake as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention, 1971, promoting its conservation and wise use.
Important for UPSC: Ramsar Convention, Wetland Conservation, Eastern Himalayas, Kamlang Tiger Reserve, Biodiversity, and Environmental Governance.
Mount Harriet National Park is located in South Andaman Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It represents a combination of terrestrial, mountain and coastal ecosystems.
It is considered an important butterfly hotspot and supports several endemic birds, reptiles, amphibians and mammals.
Important for UPSC: Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Island Ecology, Endemic Species, Marine & Coastal Ecosystems, National Parks, and Turtle Conservation.
It is considered an important butterfly hotspot and supports several endemic birds, reptiles, amphibians and mammals.
Important for UPSC: Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Island Ecology, Endemic Species, Marine & Coastal Ecosystems, National Parks, and Turtle Conservation.
Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Elephant Corridors of India 2023 report, West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in India.
2. The Indian elephant is accorded the highest level of legal protection under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
3. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides specific statutory recognition to elephant corridors as a distinct category of protected area.
1. According to the Elephant Corridors of India 2023 report, West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in India.
2. The Indian elephant is accorded the highest level of legal protection under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
3. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides specific statutory recognition to elephant corridors as a distinct category of protected area.