Answer: (B)
Relationship 1 is Correct: Statement I states the objective of PM E-DRIVE, namely promoting electric mobility through incentives and supporting infrastructure. Statement II explains the coverage of the scheme, including different categories of electric vehicles and charging infrastructure. Therefore, Statement II represents the operational reach through which the objective in Statement I is implemented.
Relationship 2 is Correct: Statement III connects PM E-DRIVE with sustainable urban transport, Atmanirbhar Bharat, and Viksit Bharat 2047. These are broader developmental and sustainability goals. Hence, Statement III extends the significance of Statement I
beyond the immediate objective of EV adoption.
Relationship 3 is Correct: Statement I focuses on the immediate policy instruments of the scheme, such as demand incentives and infrastructure support. Statement III highlights the wider long-term outcomes that the scheme is expected to contribute to, including sustainability and national development. Since Statement III expands the scope rather than contradicting Statement I, the relationship is considered correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
Relationship 1 is Correct: Statement I states the objective of PM E-DRIVE, namely promoting electric mobility through incentives and supporting infrastructure. Statement II explains the coverage of the scheme, including different categories of electric vehicles and charging infrastructure. Therefore, Statement II represents the operational reach through which the objective in Statement I is implemented.
Relationship 2 is Correct: Statement III connects PM E-DRIVE with sustainable urban transport, Atmanirbhar Bharat, and Viksit Bharat 2047. These are broader developmental and sustainability goals. Hence, Statement III extends the significance of Statement I
beyond the immediate objective of EV adoption.
Relationship 3 is Correct: Statement I focuses on the immediate policy instruments of the scheme, such as demand incentives and infrastructure support. Statement III highlights the wider long-term outcomes that the scheme is expected to contribute to, including sustainability and national development. Since Statement III expands the scope rather than contradicting Statement I, the relationship is considered correct.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh launched India’s first dedicated Department of Military Medicine, marking a significant step in strengthening defence healthcare, medical research, and operational medical support.
The department supports India’s vision of building self-reliance in defence healthcare, improving operational readiness, and adopting cutting-edge medical technologies.
Important for UPSC: Defence Healthcare, Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS), Military Medicine, Disaster Management, Defence Modernisation, and Medical Research.
The department supports India’s vision of building self-reliance in defence healthcare, improving operational readiness, and adopting cutting-edge medical technologies.
Important for UPSC: Defence Healthcare, Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS), Military Medicine, Disaster Management, Defence Modernisation, and Medical Research.
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 amends the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 to strengthen safeguards against examination malpractices and improve the integrity of public recruitment examinations.
The amendment strengthens coordination with Central and State investigating agencies to tackle paper leaks, impersonation, cyber-enabled cheating, and organized examination-related crimes.
Important for UPSC: Governance, Public Examinations, Anti-Cheating Laws, Recruitment Reforms, Cybercrime, and Administrative Reforms.
The amendment strengthens coordination with Central and State investigating agencies to tackle paper leaks, impersonation, cyber-enabled cheating, and organized examination-related crimes.
Important for UPSC: Governance, Public Examinations, Anti-Cheating Laws, Recruitment Reforms, Cybercrime, and Administrative Reforms.
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Use your existing knowledge of GS, Current Affairs, and CSAT to easily crack Banking, SSC, and Railways.
Massive Syllabus Overlap: Your core subjects (Economy, Polity, History, and CSAT) cover ≈ 75% of these exams.
3 Exams, 1 Prep: Get targeted training for Banking, SSC, and Railways without starting from scratch.
Course Starts on: 19.08.26
Course Duration: 5 Months
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For admission assistance,
contact: +91 7358301555 / +91 9363730226
Nvidia- a major semiconductor company has partnered with Microsoft to launch a new chip, called the Nvidia
RTX Spark to power computers made by the likes of Dell, Asus, and HP.
The chip combines a 20-core NVIDIA Grace CPU (co-developed with MediaTek) and a Blackwell RTX GPU with up to 6,144 CUDA cores, delivering up to 1 petaflop of AI performance.
Important for UPSC: Artificial Intelligence (AI), Semiconductors, High-Performance Computing (HPC), On-device AI, Digital Technologies, and Emerging Technologies.
RTX Spark to power computers made by the likes of Dell, Asus, and HP.
The chip combines a 20-core NVIDIA Grace CPU (co-developed with MediaTek) and a Blackwell RTX GPU with up to 6,144 CUDA cores, delivering up to 1 petaflop of AI performance.
Important for UPSC: Artificial Intelligence (AI), Semiconductors, High-Performance Computing (HPC), On-device AI, Digital Technologies, and Emerging Technologies.
Glaw Lake has been designated as India's 101st Ramsar Site, becoming the first Ramsar Site in Arunachal Pradesh. The announcement was made by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Ramsar designation recognizes the lake as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention, 1971, promoting its conservation and wise use.
Important for UPSC: Ramsar Convention, Wetland Conservation, Eastern Himalayas, Kamlang Tiger Reserve, Biodiversity, and Environmental Governance.
Ramsar designation recognizes the lake as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention, 1971, promoting its conservation and wise use.
Important for UPSC: Ramsar Convention, Wetland Conservation, Eastern Himalayas, Kamlang Tiger Reserve, Biodiversity, and Environmental Governance.
Mount Harriet National Park is located in South Andaman Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It represents a combination of terrestrial, mountain and coastal ecosystems.
It is considered an important butterfly hotspot and supports several endemic birds, reptiles, amphibians and mammals.
Important for UPSC: Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Island Ecology, Endemic Species, Marine & Coastal Ecosystems, National Parks, and Turtle Conservation.
It is considered an important butterfly hotspot and supports several endemic birds, reptiles, amphibians and mammals.
Important for UPSC: Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Island Ecology, Endemic Species, Marine & Coastal Ecosystems, National Parks, and Turtle Conservation.
Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Elephant Corridors of India 2023 report, West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in India.
2. The Indian elephant is accorded the highest level of legal protection under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
3. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides specific statutory recognition to elephant corridors as a distinct category of protected area.
1. According to the Elephant Corridors of India 2023 report, West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in India.
2. The Indian elephant is accorded the highest level of legal protection under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
3. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides specific statutory recognition to elephant corridors as a distinct category of protected area.
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Answer: (B)
● Statement 1 is correct: According to the Elephant Corridors of India 2023 report published by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in the country, with 26 corridors accounting for nearly 17% of the national total.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus indicus) is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, giving it the highest level of legal protection against hunting, poaching, and illegal trade.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 defines specific statutory categories for Protected Areas—namely National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. While corridors can sometimes be declared as Conservation or Community Reserves, the Act does not recognize "elephant corridors" as a distinct legal category of protected area.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
● Statement 1 is correct: According to the Elephant Corridors of India 2023 report published by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in the country, with 26 corridors accounting for nearly 17% of the national total.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus indicus) is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, giving it the highest level of legal protection against hunting, poaching, and illegal trade.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 defines specific statutory categories for Protected Areas—namely National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. While corridors can sometimes be declared as Conservation or Community Reserves, the Act does not recognize "elephant corridors" as a distinct legal category of protected area.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 22(1) of the Constitution requires that an arrested person must be informed of the grounds of arrest.
2. Article 21 requires that any deprivation of personal liberty must follow a procedure that is fair, just and reasonable.
3. Article 22 also provides that an arrested person has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his or her choice.
1. Article 22(1) of the Constitution requires that an arrested person must be informed of the grounds of arrest.
2. Article 21 requires that any deprivation of personal liberty must follow a procedure that is fair, just and reasonable.
3. Article 22 also provides that an arrested person has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his or her choice.
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Answer: (A)
● Statement 1 is correct: Article 22(1) specifically provides that a person who is arrested must be informed, as soon as possible, of the grounds of arrest. This is an important safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court has interpreted Article 21 to mean that no person can be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law that is fair, just, and reasonable. This interpretation was firmly established in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978).
● Statement 3 is correct: Article 22(1) also guarantees that an arrested person has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his or her choice, which is a fundamental procedural protection in criminal justice.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
● Statement 1 is correct: Article 22(1) specifically provides that a person who is arrested must be informed, as soon as possible, of the grounds of arrest. This is an important safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court has interpreted Article 21 to mean that no person can be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law that is fair, just, and reasonable. This interpretation was firmly established in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978).
● Statement 3 is correct: Article 22(1) also guarantees that an arrested person has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his or her choice, which is a fundamental procedural protection in criminal justice.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
With reference to Mission Mausam, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to improve weather and climate services through better observation, modelling and forecasting.
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 2024.
1. It aims to improve weather and climate services through better observation, modelling and forecasting.
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 2024.