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Answer: (A)
Statement 1 – Incorrect: PNGRB is a statutory regulatory body constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006, and not an executive body functioning under the Ministry.
Statement 2 – Correct: PNGRB has certain powers of a Civil Court and can receive complaints and conduct inquiries/investigations regarding contraventions of specified obligations and provisions relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas.
These functions also support the protection of consumer interests.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: PNGRB regulates the midstream and downstream activities of the petroleum and natural gas sector. Upstream activities, such as the exploration and production of crude oil and natural gas, remain under the direct control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Hence, including crude oil production makes the statement incorrect.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Statement 1 – Incorrect: PNGRB is a statutory regulatory body constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006, and not an executive body functioning under the Ministry.
Statement 2 – Correct: PNGRB has certain powers of a Civil Court and can receive complaints and conduct inquiries/investigations regarding contraventions of specified obligations and provisions relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas.
These functions also support the protection of consumer interests.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: PNGRB regulates the midstream and downstream activities of the petroleum and natural gas sector. Upstream activities, such as the exploration and production of crude oil and natural gas, remain under the direct control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Hence, including crude oil production makes the statement incorrect.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Noise Pollution in India:
1. Noise limits differ for each zones
2. The daytime noise limit for residential areas is higher than that for commercial areas.
3. The nighttime noise limit for silence zones is lower than that for residential areas.
4. The Central Pollution Control Board monitors ambient noise levels in India.
1. Noise limits differ for each zones
2. The daytime noise limit for residential areas is higher than that for commercial areas.
3. The nighttime noise limit for silence zones is lower than that for residential areas.
4. The Central Pollution Control Board monitors ambient noise levels in India.
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Answer: (A)
Statement 1 – Correct: Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, permissible noise limits are prescribed separately for different zones—industrial, commercial, residential and silence zones—and vary between daytime and nighttime.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: The daytime noise limit for residential areas is lower than that for commercial areas. The prescribed limit is 55 dB(A) Leq for residential areas and 65 dB(A) Leq for commercial areas.
Statement 3 – Correct: The nighttime noise limit for silence zones is lower than that for residential areas. It is 40 dB(A) Leq for silence zones compared with 45 dB(A) Leq for residential areas.
Statement 4 – Correct: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is responsible for monitoring and assessing ambient noise levels in India through its noise-monitoring network and implementation-related activities.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Statement 1 – Correct: Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, permissible noise limits are prescribed separately for different zones—industrial, commercial, residential and silence zones—and vary between daytime and nighttime.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: The daytime noise limit for residential areas is lower than that for commercial areas. The prescribed limit is 55 dB(A) Leq for residential areas and 65 dB(A) Leq for commercial areas.
Statement 3 – Correct: The nighttime noise limit for silence zones is lower than that for residential areas. It is 40 dB(A) Leq for silence zones compared with 45 dB(A) Leq for residential areas.
Statement 4 – Correct: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is responsible for monitoring and assessing ambient noise levels in India through its noise-monitoring network and implementation-related activities.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
A Blue Micro moon is a rare combination of a Blue Moon and a Micro moon - two separate astronomical phenomena occurring together.
In May 2026, a Blue Micromoon occurred when the Full Moon coincided closely with lunar apogee. NASA noted it as the farthest, smallest and dimmest Full Moon of 2026.
Important for UPSC: Moon's Phases, Lunar Orbit, Apogee & Perigee, Blue Moon, Micro moon, Supermoon and Basic Astronomy.
In May 2026, a Blue Micromoon occurred when the Full Moon coincided closely with lunar apogee. NASA noted it as the farthest, smallest and dimmest Full Moon of 2026.
Important for UPSC: Moon's Phases, Lunar Orbit, Apogee & Perigee, Blue Moon, Micro moon, Supermoon and Basic Astronomy.
A financial contract whose value depends on and moves with an underlying asset, such as a stock, commodity, currency, or market index. Instead of purchasing the actual asset, you trade an agreement that tracks its price fluctuations to hedge against risks or speculate on future market moves.
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Answer: (A)
The passage defines a financial contract whose value is derived from an underlying asset
(like stocks, commodities, or currencies) to hedge risk or speculate as a derivative.
● Derivatives: Financial agreements (e.g., futures, options, swaps) whose payoff depends on the performance of an underlying asset.
● Debenture: A long-term debt instrument used by corporations to borrow money at a fixed rate of interest, not backed by collateral.
● Equity Share: A unit of partial ownership in a corporation.
● Government Bond: A debt security issued by a government to support government spending and obligations.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
The passage defines a financial contract whose value is derived from an underlying asset
(like stocks, commodities, or currencies) to hedge risk or speculate as a derivative.
● Derivatives: Financial agreements (e.g., futures, options, swaps) whose payoff depends on the performance of an underlying asset.
● Debenture: A long-term debt instrument used by corporations to borrow money at a fixed rate of interest, not backed by collateral.
● Equity Share: A unit of partial ownership in a corporation.
● Government Bond: A debt security issued by a government to support government spending and obligations.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
1. The base year of the All India Index of Industrial Production (IIP) has been revised from 2011–12 to 2022–23.
2. The nine core industries constitute a major component of the IIP, with refinery products carrying the highest weight among the eight industries.
3. Manufacturing accounts for the largest weight in the IIP among the three sectors of mining, manufacturing and electricity.
1. The base year of the All India Index of Industrial Production (IIP) has been revised from 2011–12 to 2022–23.
2. The nine core industries constitute a major component of the IIP, with refinery products carrying the highest weight among the eight industries.
3. Manufacturing accounts for the largest weight in the IIP among the three sectors of mining, manufacturing and electricity.
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Answer: (A)
The base year of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) has been revised from 2011–12 to 2022–23 to better reflect the current structure of the industrial sector. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The eight core industries form an important component of the IIP. Among them, refinery products have the highest weight, followed by electricity, steel, coal and other core sectors. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The IIP covers three major sectors- Mining, Manufacturing and Electricity. Among these, Manufacturing has the largest weight in the index, making it the most significant sector in determining overall IIP growth. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
The base year of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) has been revised from 2011–12 to 2022–23 to better reflect the current structure of the industrial sector. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The eight core industries form an important component of the IIP. Among them, refinery products have the highest weight, followed by electricity, steel, coal and other core sectors. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The IIP covers three major sectors- Mining, Manufacturing and Electricity. Among these, Manufacturing has the largest weight in the index, making it the most significant sector in determining overall IIP growth. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the IndiaAI Mission:
1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) under seven pillars.
2. AIKosh is India’s AI data platform that provides access to datasets, models and tools.
3. It relies only on government institutions for developing AI solutions.
1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) under seven pillars.
2. AIKosh is India’s AI data platform that provides access to datasets, models and tools.
3. It relies only on government institutions for developing AI solutions.
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Answer: (A)
● The IndiaAI Mission is implemented under the administrative control of the Ministry
of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and is systematically
structured around seven distinct pillars (covering compute capacity, foundation
models, datasets, application development, future skills, startup financing, and safe
& trusted AI). Hence Statement 1 is correct.
● AIKosh serves as India's national AI datasets and innovation platform, acting as
a unified hub that provides access to AI-ready non-personal datasets, foundational
AI models, developer tools, and resources. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
● The mission does not rely solely on government institutions. It actively operates
through Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs), collaborating with academic
institutions, industry leaders, startups, and private tech providers to scale compute
infrastructure and accelerate innovation. Hence Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore Option A is the correct answer.
● The IndiaAI Mission is implemented under the administrative control of the Ministry
of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and is systematically
structured around seven distinct pillars (covering compute capacity, foundation
models, datasets, application development, future skills, startup financing, and safe
& trusted AI). Hence Statement 1 is correct.
● AIKosh serves as India's national AI datasets and innovation platform, acting as
a unified hub that provides access to AI-ready non-personal datasets, foundational
AI models, developer tools, and resources. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
● The mission does not rely solely on government institutions. It actively operates
through Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs), collaborating with academic
institutions, industry leaders, startups, and private tech providers to scale compute
infrastructure and accelerate innovation. Hence Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Therefore Option A is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. A permanent bench of a High Court can be established at a place other than its principal seat.
2. The Governor is the final authority in matters relating to the establishment of a permanent High Court Bench.
3. The Constitution of India clearly defines the jurisdiction and powers of High Courts.
1. A permanent bench of a High Court can be established at a place other than its principal seat.
2. The Governor is the final authority in matters relating to the establishment of a permanent High Court Bench.
3. The Constitution of India clearly defines the jurisdiction and powers of High Courts.
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Answer: (D)
Statement 1: Correct. A permanent bench of a High Court can indeed be established at a place other than its principal seat (for example, Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court, or Dharwad Bench of the Karnataka High Court).
Statement 2: Incorrect. The President is the authority empowered to establish a permanent bench by notified order (after consulting the Governor of the State and the Chief Justice of the High Court), making the Governor not the final authority.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The Constitution of India does not explicitly and exhaustively define the precise jurisdiction and powers of every High Court in detail within its text; instead, Article 225 preserves their pre-constitutional powers and leaves their jurisdiction subject to laws made by the appropriate legislature or Parliament.
Therefore, Option D is the correct answer.
Statement 1: Correct. A permanent bench of a High Court can indeed be established at a place other than its principal seat (for example, Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court, or Dharwad Bench of the Karnataka High Court).
Statement 2: Incorrect. The President is the authority empowered to establish a permanent bench by notified order (after consulting the Governor of the State and the Chief Justice of the High Court), making the Governor not the final authority.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The Constitution of India does not explicitly and exhaustively define the precise jurisdiction and powers of every High Court in detail within its text; instead, Article 225 preserves their pre-constitutional powers and leaves their jurisdiction subject to laws made by the appropriate legislature or Parliament.
Therefore, Option D is the correct answer.