maths grade 11 unit 2 uee 2003-2016.pdf
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Maths grade 11 unit 2 UEE 2003-2016
G-12 Practice Questions 2.pdf
717.5 KB
🔰Grade 12 mathematics practice questions!
Which one of the following relation is a function?
Anonymous Quiz
22%
x is a mother of y
54%
y is a father of x
17%
y is a factor of x
7%
y is multiple of x
PHYSICS QUESTIONS
🔰 Choose the correct answer!
1. Which of the following wrong statement regarding projectile motion?
A. Horizontal Velocity is constant.
B. The effect of air resistance is negligible.
C. Horizontal and vertical components of projectile motion dependant each other.
D. Free fall acceleration is constant.
2. In vertical projectile motion:
A. Acceleration is remain constant.
B. Velocity is constant.
C. Acceleration is zero.
D. All are correct.
3. Kepler's second law is state the law conservation of:
A. Energy
B. Linear momentum.
C. Angular momentum
D. Kinetic energy
4. Kepler's third also known as the laws of:____
A. Ellipse
B. Equal areas
C. Harmonies
D. Energy.
5. Which one is not correct about kepler's third law?
A. Planet closest to sun have faster speed.
B. Square orbital period directly proportional to the cube radius of orbit.
C. Describe the motion of single planet.
D. The ratio of oribital period to radius of orbit is constant.
6. The attraction force between two masses directly proportional to the product of masses and inversely proportional the square of distance b/n them. This law is__
A. Kepler's first law
B. Newton law of universal gravitation.
C. Pascal's principle
D. Omhs law.
7. The maximum height of trajectory occurs when:
A. Horizontal Velocity is constant.
B. Vertical velocity is constant
C. Vertical velocity is zero.
D. Acceleration is zero.
8. Moment inertia of object depends on:
A. The axis of rotation
B. Shape of body
C. Mass of body
D. None.
9. Which one is correct about inclined projectile motion?
A. Vertical component of Velocity is constant.
B. Acceleration in horizontal motion.
C. There is no force acting in horizontal direction.
D. Horizontal Velocity is changed with time.
10. Rotational effect of force is called____
A. Mass
B. Force
C. Torque.
D. Acceleration
ANSWER
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
🔰 Choose the correct answer!
1. Which of the following wrong statement regarding projectile motion?
A. Horizontal Velocity is constant.
B. The effect of air resistance is negligible.
C. Horizontal and vertical components of projectile motion dependant each other.
D. Free fall acceleration is constant.
2. In vertical projectile motion:
A. Acceleration is remain constant.
B. Velocity is constant.
C. Acceleration is zero.
D. All are correct.
3. Kepler's second law is state the law conservation of:
A. Energy
B. Linear momentum.
C. Angular momentum
D. Kinetic energy
4. Kepler's third also known as the laws of:____
A. Ellipse
B. Equal areas
C. Harmonies
D. Energy.
5. Which one is not correct about kepler's third law?
A. Planet closest to sun have faster speed.
B. Square orbital period directly proportional to the cube radius of orbit.
C. Describe the motion of single planet.
D. The ratio of oribital period to radius of orbit is constant.
6. The attraction force between two masses directly proportional to the product of masses and inversely proportional the square of distance b/n them. This law is__
A. Kepler's first law
B. Newton law of universal gravitation.
C. Pascal's principle
D. Omhs law.
7. The maximum height of trajectory occurs when:
A. Horizontal Velocity is constant.
B. Vertical velocity is constant
C. Vertical velocity is zero.
D. Acceleration is zero.
8. Moment inertia of object depends on:
A. The axis of rotation
B. Shape of body
C. Mass of body
D. None.
9. Which one is correct about inclined projectile motion?
A. Vertical component of Velocity is constant.
B. Acceleration in horizontal motion.
C. There is no force acting in horizontal direction.
D. Horizontal Velocity is changed with time.
10. Rotational effect of force is called____
A. Mass
B. Force
C. Torque.
D. Acceleration
ANSWER
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
👏4❤2
Which of the following is the largest part of the brain?
Anonymous Quiz
21%
Medulla oblongata
50%
Cerebellum
20%
Cerebrum
10%
Thalamus
BIOLOGY QUESTIONS FOR GRADE FROM UNIT_2
MICROORGANISMS.
1. Which of the following branch of biology study about microbes?
A. Anatomy
B. Virology
C. Microbiology
D. Zoology
2. Which of the following not characteristics of Eubacteria?
A. They have great variation in mode of nutrition.
B. the lack true chlorophyll
C. Have both DNA and RNA
D. Unicellular and eukaryotic microorganisms.
3. Which of the following unicellular eukaryotic microorganisms?
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
4. All external structure of bacteria EXCEPT?
A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. Pill
D. Endospore
5. All groups of bacterial shapes is....
A. Bacilli, Cocci, Circle, tetrahedral
B. Cocci, Circle, Triangle,Comma
C. Comma, Bacilli, Cocci, Spirochetes
D. All are correct.
6. Which of the following rod shaped bacteria?
A. Comma
B. Cocci
C. Bacilli
D. Spirochetes
7. Bacteria can be classified Gram positive and Gram negative based on__
A. Shape
B. Structure of bacteria
C. Cell wall composition
D. Size of bacteria
8. Gram positive bacteria is differ from Gram negative bacteria.
Gram positive bacteria is____
A. Lose crystal violet stain
B. More permeable of molecules
C. has thin peptidoglycan.
D. has outer membrane.
9. Consider the following steps
1. iodine treatment
2. Decolonization
3. Fixation
4. Crystal violet
5. Counter stain safranin
Which of the following correct steps of Gram staining?
A. 3, 4,1, 5, 2
B. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
C. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
10. All are characteristics of true bacteria one is not?
A. Have cell wall made from peptidoglycan.
B. Have genetic material
C. Found in everywhere.
D. They are Eukaryotic unicellular organisms.
MICROORGANISMS.
1. Which of the following branch of biology study about microbes?
A. Anatomy
B. Virology
C. Microbiology
D. Zoology
2. Which of the following not characteristics of Eubacteria?
A. They have great variation in mode of nutrition.
B. the lack true chlorophyll
C. Have both DNA and RNA
D. Unicellular and eukaryotic microorganisms.
3. Which of the following unicellular eukaryotic microorganisms?
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
4. All external structure of bacteria EXCEPT?
A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. Pill
D. Endospore
5. All groups of bacterial shapes is....
A. Bacilli, Cocci, Circle, tetrahedral
B. Cocci, Circle, Triangle,Comma
C. Comma, Bacilli, Cocci, Spirochetes
D. All are correct.
6. Which of the following rod shaped bacteria?
A. Comma
B. Cocci
C. Bacilli
D. Spirochetes
7. Bacteria can be classified Gram positive and Gram negative based on__
A. Shape
B. Structure of bacteria
C. Cell wall composition
D. Size of bacteria
8. Gram positive bacteria is differ from Gram negative bacteria.
Gram positive bacteria is____
A. Lose crystal violet stain
B. More permeable of molecules
C. has thin peptidoglycan.
D. has outer membrane.
9. Consider the following steps
1. iodine treatment
2. Decolonization
3. Fixation
4. Crystal violet
5. Counter stain safranin
Which of the following correct steps of Gram staining?
A. 3, 4,1, 5, 2
B. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
C. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
10. All are characteristics of true bacteria one is not?
A. Have cell wall made from peptidoglycan.
B. Have genetic material
C. Found in everywhere.
D. They are Eukaryotic unicellular organisms.
❤2🤔1
Given data 3, 16, 4, 8, 9, 2, 1, 6, 11, 13, 5, 7 then what is the range of the given data?
Anonymous Quiz
10%
12
64%
15
18%
8
9%
10
Inter quartile range is defined as:
Anonymous Quiz
16%
The deference between quartile 2 and 1
28%
The deference between quartile 3 and 2
50%
The deference between quartile 3 and 1
6%
The average of quartile 1 and 3
If f is the greatest integer function and g is absolute value function, then what is the value of fog(3/2) + gof(-4/3)?
Anonymous Quiz
19%
1
33%
-1
30%
3
18%
2
❤1
Biology questions for grade 12 students from grade 11 unit-2 Animals.
Choose the best answer
1. Which of the following is a characteristic unique to animals?
A) Photosynthesis
B) Multicellularity
C) Heterotrophy
D) Cell walls
2. What type of body symmetry do most animals exhibit?
A) Asymmetry
B) Radial symmetry
C) Bilateral symmetry
D) Spherical symmetry
3. Which of the following is a common characteristic of mammals?
A) Feathers
B) Scales
C) Mammary glands
D) Gills
4. Which of the following groups is considered invertebrates?
A) Fish
B) Amphibians
C) Arthropods
D) Reptiles
5. What is the primary feature that distinguishes vertebrates from invertebrates?
A) Presence of a backbone
B) Ability to reproduce sexually
C) Presence of legs
D) Ability to fly
6. Which of the following is an example of an echinoderm?
A) Squid
B) Starfish
C) Octopus
D) Crab
7. What type of reproduction involves the development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg?
A) Sexual reproduction
B) Asexual reproduction
C) Parthenogenesis
D) Budding
8. In which type of reproduction do offspring develop from a single parent without fertilization?
A) Sexual reproduction
B) Asexual reproduction
C) Fragmentation
D) Sexual dimorphism
9. Which reproductive strategy involves laying eggs outside the body?
A) Oviparity
B) Viviparity
C) Ovoviviparity
D) Asexual reproduction
10. Which insect is primarily responsible for pollination in many crops?
A) Mosquito
B) Butterfly
C) Ant
D) Beetle
11. What is the role of honeybees in agriculture?
A) Pest control
B) Pollination
C) Soil aeration
D) Decomposition
12. Which insect is known for producing silk?
A) Termite
B) Silkworm
C) Grasshopper
D) Ladybug
13. What term describes the study of animal behavior?
A) Ethology
B) Ecology
C) Zoology
D) Physiology
14. Which behavior is characterized by a fixed action pattern in response to a specific stimulus?
A) Imprinting
B) Reflex action
C) Migration
D) Courtship behavior
15. What is the term for a behavior that increases an animal's chances of survival and reproduction?
A) Innate behavior
B) Learned behavior
C) Adaptive behavior
D) Social behavior
16. What is homeostasis?
A) The ability to reproduce
B) The maintenance of stable internal conditions
C) The ability to adapt to the environment
D) The process of evolution
17. Which organ system is primarily responsible for maintaining homeostasis in animals?
A) Digestive system
B) Nervous system
C) Endocrine system
D) Circulatory system
18. How do mammals regulate their body temperature?
A) Through behavioral adaptations only
B) By changing their color
C) Through physiological mechanisms like sweating or shivering
D) By migrating to different climates
19. Which of the following animals is known for its ability to hibernate?
A) Dolphin
B) Bear
C) Eagle
D) Shark
20. What type of animal is typically characterized by having a hydrostatic skeleton?
A) Arthropods
B) Mollusks
C) Annelids (earthworms, etc.)
D) Both B and C
21. Which animal is known for its complex vocalizations and social structures?
A) Wolf
B) Goldfish
C) Snail
D) Jellyfish
Choose the best answer
1. Which of the following is a characteristic unique to animals?
A) Photosynthesis
B) Multicellularity
C) Heterotrophy
D) Cell walls
2. What type of body symmetry do most animals exhibit?
A) Asymmetry
B) Radial symmetry
C) Bilateral symmetry
D) Spherical symmetry
3. Which of the following is a common characteristic of mammals?
A) Feathers
B) Scales
C) Mammary glands
D) Gills
4. Which of the following groups is considered invertebrates?
A) Fish
B) Amphibians
C) Arthropods
D) Reptiles
5. What is the primary feature that distinguishes vertebrates from invertebrates?
A) Presence of a backbone
B) Ability to reproduce sexually
C) Presence of legs
D) Ability to fly
6. Which of the following is an example of an echinoderm?
A) Squid
B) Starfish
C) Octopus
D) Crab
7. What type of reproduction involves the development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg?
A) Sexual reproduction
B) Asexual reproduction
C) Parthenogenesis
D) Budding
8. In which type of reproduction do offspring develop from a single parent without fertilization?
A) Sexual reproduction
B) Asexual reproduction
C) Fragmentation
D) Sexual dimorphism
9. Which reproductive strategy involves laying eggs outside the body?
A) Oviparity
B) Viviparity
C) Ovoviviparity
D) Asexual reproduction
10. Which insect is primarily responsible for pollination in many crops?
A) Mosquito
B) Butterfly
C) Ant
D) Beetle
11. What is the role of honeybees in agriculture?
A) Pest control
B) Pollination
C) Soil aeration
D) Decomposition
12. Which insect is known for producing silk?
A) Termite
B) Silkworm
C) Grasshopper
D) Ladybug
13. What term describes the study of animal behavior?
A) Ethology
B) Ecology
C) Zoology
D) Physiology
14. Which behavior is characterized by a fixed action pattern in response to a specific stimulus?
A) Imprinting
B) Reflex action
C) Migration
D) Courtship behavior
15. What is the term for a behavior that increases an animal's chances of survival and reproduction?
A) Innate behavior
B) Learned behavior
C) Adaptive behavior
D) Social behavior
16. What is homeostasis?
A) The ability to reproduce
B) The maintenance of stable internal conditions
C) The ability to adapt to the environment
D) The process of evolution
17. Which organ system is primarily responsible for maintaining homeostasis in animals?
A) Digestive system
B) Nervous system
C) Endocrine system
D) Circulatory system
18. How do mammals regulate their body temperature?
A) Through behavioral adaptations only
B) By changing their color
C) Through physiological mechanisms like sweating or shivering
D) By migrating to different climates
19. Which of the following animals is known for its ability to hibernate?
A) Dolphin
B) Bear
C) Eagle
D) Shark
20. What type of animal is typically characterized by having a hydrostatic skeleton?
A) Arthropods
B) Mollusks
C) Annelids (earthworms, etc.)
D) Both B and C
21. Which animal is known for its complex vocalizations and social structures?
A) Wolf
B) Goldfish
C) Snail
D) Jellyfish
❤1
22. Which term describes animals that can maintain a constant body temperature regardless of environmental conditions?
A) Ectothermic
B) Endothermic
C) Poikilothermic
D) Homeothermic
23. What type of feeding strategy involves an organism consuming its own kind?
A) Herbivory
B) Carnivory
C) Cannibalism
D) Omnivory
24. Which animal group exhibits the most complex nervous systems?
A) Insects
B) Fish
C) Mammals
D) Reptiles
25. What is the primary function of pheromones in animals?
A) To aid in digestion
B) To attract mates or signal danger
C) To camouflage from predators
D) To regulate body temperature
26. Which animal is known for its ability to produce bioluminescence?
A) Firefly
B) Elephant
C) Tiger
D) Giraffe
27. What term describes the seasonal movement of animals from one region to another?
A) Migration
B) Hibernation
C) Estivation
D) Foraging
28. Which group of animals is known for having exoskeletons?
A) Mammals
B) Birds
C) Arthropods
D) Amphibians
29. What type of feeding mechanism do filter feeders use?
A) Grazing on plants
B) Catching prey with teeth
C) Straining food particles from water
D) Absorbing nutrients through skin
30. Which physiological process helps fish regulate their buoyancy in water?
A) Swim bladder adjustment
B) Gills respiration
C) Heart rate variation
D) Liver metabolism
The End!!
Prepared by Maths group11
A) Ectothermic
B) Endothermic
C) Poikilothermic
D) Homeothermic
23. What type of feeding strategy involves an organism consuming its own kind?
A) Herbivory
B) Carnivory
C) Cannibalism
D) Omnivory
24. Which animal group exhibits the most complex nervous systems?
A) Insects
B) Fish
C) Mammals
D) Reptiles
25. What is the primary function of pheromones in animals?
A) To aid in digestion
B) To attract mates or signal danger
C) To camouflage from predators
D) To regulate body temperature
26. Which animal is known for its ability to produce bioluminescence?
A) Firefly
B) Elephant
C) Tiger
D) Giraffe
27. What term describes the seasonal movement of animals from one region to another?
A) Migration
B) Hibernation
C) Estivation
D) Foraging
28. Which group of animals is known for having exoskeletons?
A) Mammals
B) Birds
C) Arthropods
D) Amphibians
29. What type of feeding mechanism do filter feeders use?
A) Grazing on plants
B) Catching prey with teeth
C) Straining food particles from water
D) Absorbing nutrients through skin
30. Which physiological process helps fish regulate their buoyancy in water?
A) Swim bladder adjustment
B) Gills respiration
C) Heart rate variation
D) Liver metabolism
The End!!
Prepared by Maths group11
💯9
A certain gas occupies a volume of 10m³ at a pressure of 100kPa. If its volume is increased to 20m³, what would be the new pressure of the gas at constant temperature?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
10 kPa
54%
50kPa
35%
200kPa
2%
5kPa
At what temperature will the volume of gas be halved, if the original temperature is 17°C?
Anonymous Quiz
23%
580K
32%
1060K
30%
145K
14%
273K
❤1
At the same temperature and pressure, equal volumes of gas contain equal numbers of moles. This observation is known as____________.
Anonymous Quiz
17%
Boyle's law
11%
Charles' law
19%
Gay Lussac's law
52%
Avogadro's law
❤1
One mole of gas occupies 27L, and its density is 1.41g/L at a particular temperature and pressure. What is the density of the gas at STP?
Anonymous Quiz
17%
1.99g/L
31%
1.41g/L
44%
38. 07g/L
8%
19.28g/L
Which one of the following matter has strong intermolecular force?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
Gas
11%
Plasma
5%
Liquid
72%
Solid
Which of the following matter exists in a very high temperature?
Anonymous Quiz
27%
Gas
60%
Plasma
8%
Liquid
5%
Solid
Chemistry questions for grade 11 -12 students from grade 9 unit 5 and grade 11 unit 3 physics states of matter.
Choose the best answer
1. What is the density of a substance if 50 grams occupies a volume of 25 cm³?
A) 0.5 g/cm³
B) 1.0 g/cm³
C) 2.0 g/cm³
D) 5.0 g/cm³
2. A gas occupies a volume of 2.0 L at a pressure of 1.0 atm. What will be its volume if the pressure is increased to 2.0 atm (at constant temperature)?
A) 1.0 L
B) 2.0 L
C) 3.0 L
D) 4.0 L
3. Which one of the following matter have definite volume, but have no definite shape?
A) Solids
B) Gases
C) Plasma
D) Liquids
4. What is the volume of 1 mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
A) 22.4 L
B) 24.0 L
C) 18.0 L
D) 1.0 L
5. A gas has a volume of 3.0 L at a temperature of 300 K. What will be its temperature if the volume is reduced to 1.5 L (at constant pressure)?
A) 150 K
B) 200 K
C) 300 K
D) 600 K
6. When ice melts at 0°C, how much heat is absorbed by 200 g of ice? (Heat of fusion for ice = 334 J/g)
A) 6680 J
B) 6670 J
C) 1670 J
D) 334 J
7. If you have a balloon filled with gas at a pressure of 1.5 atm and a volume of 4.0 L, what will the new volume be if the pressure is reduced to 1.0 atm (temperature constant)?
A) 2.67 L
B) 4.5 L
C) 6.0 L
D) 8.0 L
8. A container holds 2 moles of gas at a temperature of 300 K and a pressure of 1 atm. What is the volume of the gas?
A) 49.4 L
B) 61.2 L
C) 73.2 L
D) 82.1 L
9. What is the final temperature if you start with a gas at 400 K and increase its volume from 2 L to 4 L while keeping pressure constant?
A) 200 K
B) 400 K
C) 600 K
D) 800 K
10. Which of the following matter have higher density than the others?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gases
D) Plasma
11. If the boiling point of a liquid is at standard atmospheric pressure (1 atm), what happens to its boiling point if the pressure is decreased to half an atm?
A) It increases
B) It decreases
C) It remains the same
D) It becomes unpredictable
12. A sample of gas has a volume of 10 L at a temperature of -20°C. What will be its volume at standard temperature (0°C), assuming constant pressure?
A) 9.7 L
B) 10 L
C) 10.2 L
D) 11 L
13. A gas is compressed from a volume of 5 L to a volume of 2 L at constant temperature. If the initial pressure was 3 atm, what is the final pressure?
A) 7.5 atm
B) 6 atm
C) 4 atm
D) 1.5 atm
14. Which of the following is not the physics properties of gases?
A) They are highly compressible.
B) They exert pressure equally in all directions.
C) Gases have much higher density than solids and liquids
D) The volume and the shape of gases are not fixed
15. Which of the following is equal to 1000cm³?
A) 10dm³
B) 100mL
C) 1L
D) 1m³
16. A balloon filled with helium has a volume of 10 L at room temperature (25°C). If it is cooled to -10°C, what will be its new volume? (Assuming ideal behavior and constant pressure)
A) Approximately 8.5 L
B) Approximately 9 L
C) Approximately 10 L
D) Approximately 11 L
17. Volume is:
A) Inversely proportional to temperature
B) Directly proportional to pressure
C) Increased when the temperature is decreased
D) Increased when the pressure is decreased
18. At what temperature will the volume of gas be doubled, if the original temperature is 17°C?
A) 580K
B) 1060K
C) 145K
D) 273K
19. If an unknown gas diffuses 1.73 times faster than krypton, what is the molar mass of the unknown gas? (Molar mass of krypton= 83. 8g/mol)
A) 28g/mol
B) 63.7g/mol
C) 110g/mol
D) 251g/mol
20. The direct change of gas to solid is:
A) Sublimation
B) Deposition
C) Evaporation
D) Condensation
21. If you have two gases in a closed container and one gas diffuses faster than the other, which law explains this phenomenon?
A) Boyle's Law
B) Charles' Law
C) Graham's Law
D) Dalton's Law
Choose the best answer
1. What is the density of a substance if 50 grams occupies a volume of 25 cm³?
A) 0.5 g/cm³
B) 1.0 g/cm³
C) 2.0 g/cm³
D) 5.0 g/cm³
2. A gas occupies a volume of 2.0 L at a pressure of 1.0 atm. What will be its volume if the pressure is increased to 2.0 atm (at constant temperature)?
A) 1.0 L
B) 2.0 L
C) 3.0 L
D) 4.0 L
3. Which one of the following matter have definite volume, but have no definite shape?
A) Solids
B) Gases
C) Plasma
D) Liquids
4. What is the volume of 1 mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
A) 22.4 L
B) 24.0 L
C) 18.0 L
D) 1.0 L
5. A gas has a volume of 3.0 L at a temperature of 300 K. What will be its temperature if the volume is reduced to 1.5 L (at constant pressure)?
A) 150 K
B) 200 K
C) 300 K
D) 600 K
6. When ice melts at 0°C, how much heat is absorbed by 200 g of ice? (Heat of fusion for ice = 334 J/g)
A) 6680 J
B) 6670 J
C) 1670 J
D) 334 J
7. If you have a balloon filled with gas at a pressure of 1.5 atm and a volume of 4.0 L, what will the new volume be if the pressure is reduced to 1.0 atm (temperature constant)?
A) 2.67 L
B) 4.5 L
C) 6.0 L
D) 8.0 L
8. A container holds 2 moles of gas at a temperature of 300 K and a pressure of 1 atm. What is the volume of the gas?
A) 49.4 L
B) 61.2 L
C) 73.2 L
D) 82.1 L
9. What is the final temperature if you start with a gas at 400 K and increase its volume from 2 L to 4 L while keeping pressure constant?
A) 200 K
B) 400 K
C) 600 K
D) 800 K
10. Which of the following matter have higher density than the others?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gases
D) Plasma
11. If the boiling point of a liquid is at standard atmospheric pressure (1 atm), what happens to its boiling point if the pressure is decreased to half an atm?
A) It increases
B) It decreases
C) It remains the same
D) It becomes unpredictable
12. A sample of gas has a volume of 10 L at a temperature of -20°C. What will be its volume at standard temperature (0°C), assuming constant pressure?
A) 9.7 L
B) 10 L
C) 10.2 L
D) 11 L
13. A gas is compressed from a volume of 5 L to a volume of 2 L at constant temperature. If the initial pressure was 3 atm, what is the final pressure?
A) 7.5 atm
B) 6 atm
C) 4 atm
D) 1.5 atm
14. Which of the following is not the physics properties of gases?
A) They are highly compressible.
B) They exert pressure equally in all directions.
C) Gases have much higher density than solids and liquids
D) The volume and the shape of gases are not fixed
15. Which of the following is equal to 1000cm³?
A) 10dm³
B) 100mL
C) 1L
D) 1m³
16. A balloon filled with helium has a volume of 10 L at room temperature (25°C). If it is cooled to -10°C, what will be its new volume? (Assuming ideal behavior and constant pressure)
A) Approximately 8.5 L
B) Approximately 9 L
C) Approximately 10 L
D) Approximately 11 L
17. Volume is:
A) Inversely proportional to temperature
B) Directly proportional to pressure
C) Increased when the temperature is decreased
D) Increased when the pressure is decreased
18. At what temperature will the volume of gas be doubled, if the original temperature is 17°C?
A) 580K
B) 1060K
C) 145K
D) 273K
19. If an unknown gas diffuses 1.73 times faster than krypton, what is the molar mass of the unknown gas? (Molar mass of krypton= 83. 8g/mol)
A) 28g/mol
B) 63.7g/mol
C) 110g/mol
D) 251g/mol
20. The direct change of gas to solid is:
A) Sublimation
B) Deposition
C) Evaporation
D) Condensation
21. If you have two gases in a closed container and one gas diffuses faster than the other, which law explains this phenomenon?
A) Boyle's Law
B) Charles' Law
C) Graham's Law
D) Dalton's Law