🩺 Q164: A patient with suspected metabolic acidosis has the following labs: Na+ 140 mEq/L, Cl- 115 mEq/L, HCO3- 18 mEq/L. What is the calculated anion gap, and what is the likely cause?
Anonymous Quiz
46%
A) 7 mEq/L; Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis (hyperchloremic).
54%
B) 7 mEq/L; Anion gap metabolic acidosis (ketoacidosis).
0%
C) 25 mEq/L; Lactic acidosis.
0%
D) 25 mEq/L; Renal tubular acidosis.
🩺 Q165: Which blood group system is associated with the P1PK phenotype and is known to produce naturally occurring cold-reactive IgM antibodies?
Anonymous Quiz
17%
A) Kell system
58%
B) Kidd system
8%
C) P system
17%
Duffy system
🩺 Q167: A peripheral blood smear from a patient with chronic liver disease shows 'spur cells' (acanthocytes). Which biochemical abnormality in the red cell membrane is primarily responsible for their formation?
Anonymous Quiz
33%
A) Increased cholesterol-to-phospholipid ratio.
33%
B) Deficiency of spectrin-ankyrin linkage.
7%
C) Increased membrane permeability to sodium.
27%
D) Oxidative damage to hemoglobin (Heinz bodies).
🩺 Q167: Which antibody is known for its ability to cause severe delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions and is characterized by its tendency to drop below detectable levels in serum?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
Anti-D
86%
B) Anti-Jka
14%
C) Anti-M
0%
D) Anti-Lea
🩺 Q169: A patient's CBC shows a markedly elevated white blood cell count with a 'leukemoid reaction'. Which finding on the peripheral blood smear would best distinguish this from Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
A) Presence of toxic granulation and Dohle bodies.
93%
B) Increased Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) score.
0%
C) Absolute basophilia and eosinophilia.
0%
D) Presence of nucleated red blood cells.
🩺 Q169: What is the purpose of the 'check cells' (IgG-coated red cells) added to negative antiglobulin tests in the Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) To neutralize excess AHG reagent
100%
B) To confirm that the AHG reagent was added and is functional
0%
C) To act as a positive control for the patient's red cells
0%
D) To increase the sensitivity of the test
🩺 Q170: A patient has a prolonged PT and PTT. Mixing studies show correction of both with normal plasma. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this coagulation profile?
Anonymous Quiz
21%
A) Factor V deficiency.
64%
B) Lupus anticoagulant.
7%
C) Factor VIII inhibitor.
7%
D) Vitamin K deficiency.
🩺 Q172: A mother is Group O, Rh-negative, and her infant is Group A, Rh-positive. What is the most likely cause of the infant's jaundice?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
ABO incompatibility
87%
B) Rh hemolytic disease
7%
C) Kell sensitization
7%
D) Physiological jaundice
🩺 Q172: Which hormone is responsible for increasing blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver?
Anonymous Quiz
18%
A) Insulin.
53%
B) Glucagon.
29%
C) Somatostatin.
0%
D) Aldosterone.
🩺 Q174: Which blood product is the treatment of choice for a patient with von Willebrand disease who is bleeding?
Anonymous Quiz
31%
A) Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)
44%
B) Cryoprecipitate
6%
C) Platelet concentrate
19%
D) Factor VIII concentrate
🩺 Q174: A patient with a megaloblastic anemia has a normal serum folate level. Which laboratory finding would support a diagnosis of Vitamin B12 deficiency?
Anonymous Quiz
27%
A) Elevated methylmalonic acid (MMA) levels.
33%
B) Elevated serum homocysteine levels only.
0%
C) Decreased serum gastrin levels.
40%
D) Increased urine formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLU).
🩺 Q175: Which blood group antigens are destroyed by treatment with proteolytic enzymes like ficin or papain?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
A) Rh antigens
71%
B) Kidd antigens
12%
C) Duffy antigens
12%
D) Kell antigens
🩺 Q177: In the Jaffe reaction for creatinine measurement, which substance is known to cause significant positive interference?
Anonymous Quiz
35%
Ascorbic acid.
18%
Bilirubin.
18%
C) Glucose.
29%
D) Acetoacetate.
🩺 Q177: What is the primary objective of performing a crossmatch before blood transfusion?
Anonymous Quiz
88%
A) To detect incompatibility between donor red cells and patient serum
6%
B) To determine the patient's Rh type
6%
C) To identify all possible antibodies in the patient
0%
D) To verify the expiration date of the blood unit
🩺 Q179: Which red blood cell inclusion is composed of precipitated denatured hemoglobin and is best visualized using a supravital stain like crystal violet?
Anonymous Quiz
14%
A) Basophilic stippling.
64%
B) Pappenheimer bodies.
7%
C) Heinz bodies.
14%
D) Howell-Jolly bodies.
🩺 Q180: A patient has a positive RPR test, but the confirmatory FTA-ABS test is negative. What is the most likely interpretation?
Anonymous Quiz
27%
A) Primary syphilis
20%
B) Tertiary syphilis
53%
C) False-positive RPR
0%
D) Neurosyphilis
🩺 Q180: In fine needle aspiration (FNA) cytology of a thyroid nodule, the presence of 'Orphan Annie eye' nuclei and intranuclear inclusions is diagnostic for which condition?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
A) Follicular adenoma.
47%
B) Medullary carcinoma.
27%
C) Papillary carcinoma.
20%
D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
🩺 Q182: Which immunoglobulin class is the first to be produced in a primary immune response and is the most efficient at agglutination?
Anonymous Quiz
12%
A) IgG
18%
B) IgA
65%
C) IgM
6%
D) IgE
🩺 Q182: Which stain is utilized specifically to demonstrate the presence of iron deposits (hemosiderin) in liver biopsy tissue?
Anonymous Quiz
35%
A) Gomori Methenamine Silver (GMS).
53%
B) Prussian Blue.
6%
C) Oil Red O.
6%
D) Mucicarmine.
🩺 Q184: Which HLA class I antigens are critical for consideration in tissue transplantation matching?
Anonymous Quiz
60%
A) HLA-DR, DP, DQ
20%
B) HLA-A, B, C
20%
C) HLA-G, E
0%
D) HLA-DM