🩺 Q384: A patient with severe von Willebrand disease (Type 3) would typically exhibit which of the following coagulation profiles?
Anonymous Quiz
30%
A) Prolonged PT, normal PTT, normal PFA-100
30%
B) Normal PT, prolonged PTT, prolonged PFA-100
40%
C) Prolonged PT, prolonged PTT, normal platelet count
0%
D) Normal PT, normal PTT, prolonged PFA-100
🩺 Q385: Which of the following findings on a peripheral blood smear is most characteristic of a patient with severe Hemoglobin H (HbH) disease?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) Howell-Jolly bodies
30%
Basophilic stippling
70%
C) Golf-ball inclusions (Heinz bodies) after brilliant cresyl blue staining
0%
D) Schistocytes
🩺 Q386: In the WHO classification of Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS), what is the threshold percentage of blasts in the bone marrow required for a diagnosis of MDS with excess blasts (MDS-EB)?
Anonymous Quiz
10%
A) 1-4%
50%
B) 5-19%
30%
C) 20-30%
10%
D) >30%
🩺 Q387: Which clotting factor is not produced in the liver and serves as a cofactor for the activation of Factor X?
Anonymous Quiz
40%
A) Factor V
50%
B) Factor VII
10%
C) Factor VIII
0%
D) Factor XIII
🩺 Q388: A patient with megaloblastic anemia secondary to Vitamin B12 deficiency shows hypersegmented neutrophils. What is the mechanism for this morphologic change?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) Defective iron incorporation into heme
60%
B) Impaired DNA synthesis due to decreased thymidine production
30%
C) Increased oxidative stress on the neutrophil membrane
10%
D) Increased sequestration of mature cells in the spleen
🩺 Q389: Which translocation is pathognomonic for Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL), also known as FAB M3?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) t(8;21)
70%
B) t(9;22)
30%
C) t(15;17)
0%
D) t(11;14)
🩺 Q390: A patient presents with sudden onset of purpura and a platelet count of 12,000/µL. Peripheral smear shows large platelets but no other abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous Quiz
36%
A) Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
45%
B) Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
9%
C) Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
9%
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
🩺 Q391: A 24-year-old male presents with a painful penile ulcer and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. A dark-field examination of the lesion is negative. Gram stain of the exudate shows small, pleomorphic, Gram-negative coccobacilli in 'school of fish' arrangements. Which culture medium is required
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) Thayer-Martin agar
36%
Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) agar
64%
C) Mueller-Hinton agar supplemented with 1% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
0%
D) Cystine-tellurite blood agar
🩺 Q392: A sputum sample from a patient with chronic pulmonary symptoms shows large, thick-walled yeast cells (8-15 µm) with broad-based budding upon microscopic examination. Which organism is the most likely cause?
Anonymous Quiz
20%
A) Histoplasma capsulatum
70%
Blastomyces dermatitidis
10%
Coccidioides immitis
0%
D) Cryptococcus neoformans
🩺 Q393: A crossmatch is performed between a donor unit and a patient's serum. The immediate spin is compatible, but the AHG phase shows agglutination. What is the most likely reason?
Anonymous Quiz
25%
ABO incompatibility
67%
B) Presence of a clinically significant IgG alloantibody
8%
C) Prozone effect
0%
D) Presence of a cold-reactive IgM antibody
🩺 Q394: A pregnant woman is Rh-negative with a negative antibody screen at 28 weeks. She receives Rh immune globulin (RhIG). What is the expected laboratory result if her blood is tested shortly after administration?
Anonymous Quiz
45%
A) Positive antibody screen
36%
B) Positive DAT
18%
C) Negative antibody screen
0%
D) Positive Rh typing
🩺 Q395: Which component is the treatment of choice for a patient with von Willebrand disease who is bleeding and has failed to respond to desmopressin?
Anonymous Quiz
73%
A) Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)
27%
B) Cryoprecipitate
0%
C) Platelet concentrate
0%
D) Factor IX concentrate
🩺 Q396: Which of the following phenotypes is associated with the lack of the H antigen, resulting in the inability to express A or B antigens on red blood cells?
Anonymous Quiz
30%
A) Bombay phenotype
60%
B) Para-Bombay phenotype
0%
C) A2 phenotype
10%
D) Weak D phenotype
🩺 Q397: A patient experiences fever, chills, and hypotension shortly after the initiation of a red cell transfusion. The clerical check is correct. What is the most likely type of reaction?
Anonymous Quiz
27%
A) Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
55%
B) Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
18%
C) Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
0%
D) Allergic reaction
🩺 Q398: Which of the following antibodies is known for showing 'dosage', reacting more strongly with homozygous cells than with heterozygous cells?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
Anti-D
73%
B) Anti-K
9%
C) Anti-c
9%
D) Anti-Le(a)
🩺 Q399: What is the purpose of adding LISS (Low Ionic Strength Saline) to the antibody screen procedure?
Anonymous Quiz
33%
A) To increase the zeta potential
58%
B) To decrease the incubation time
0%
C) To neutralize IgM antibodies
8%
D) To prevent complement activation
🩺 Q400: [Medical Microbiology & Parasitology Case (Series #2, Case #4)] On MacConkey agar, pink colonies indicate lactose fermentation due to the pH indicator:
Anonymous Quiz
30%
A) Neutral red
70%
Bromothymol blue
0%
C) Phenol red
0%
D) Methyl red
🩺 Q401: [Medical Microbiology & Parasitology Case (Series #3, Case #5)] Which stain is primarily used for identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis in clinical laboratory sputum examination?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) Gram stain
91%
B) Acid-Fast (Ziehl-Neelsen) stain
9%
C) Wright-Giemsa stain
0%
D) Leishman stain
🩺 Q402: [Medical Microbiology & Parasitology Case (Series #3, Case #6)] On MacConkey agar, pink colonies indicate lactose fermentation due to the pH indicator:
Anonymous Quiz
45%
A) Neutral red
55%
Bromothymol blue
0%
C) Phenol red
0%
D) Methyl red
🩺 Q403: [Medical Microbiology & Parasitology Case (Series #4, Case #7)] Which stain is primarily used for identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis in clinical laboratory sputum examination?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
A) Gram stain
82%
B) Acid-Fast (Ziehl-Neelsen) stain
9%
C) Wright-Giemsa stain
0%
D) Leishman stain