Consider the following statements regarding the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI):
1. It is a statutory body constituted under the IRDA Act, 1999, based on the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee.
2. It mandates insurance companies to maintain a Minimum Solvency Margin to ensure they have sufficient capital to settle claims.
3. It directly fixes prices and caps premiums for all personal line general insurance products in India through statutory administrative orders.
1. It is a statutory body constituted under the IRDA Act, 1999, based on the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee.
2. It mandates insurance companies to maintain a Minimum Solvency Margin to ensure they have sufficient capital to settle claims.
3. It directly fixes prices and caps premiums for all personal line general insurance products in India through statutory administrative orders.
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Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is correct: IRDAI is a statutory body established under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999, following the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee (1994).
Statement 2 is correct: IRDAI requires insurers to maintain a prescribed minimum solvency margin to ensure they have sufficient financial resources to meet their policyholder obligations, including claims.
Statement 3 is incorrect: IRDAI regulates insurance products and premiums within the applicable legal framework, but it does not directly fix prices and cap premiums for all personal-line general insurance products through statutory administrative orders. Premium regulation varies by product and applicable regulatory provisions.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: IRDAI is a statutory body established under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999, following the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee (1994).
Statement 2 is correct: IRDAI requires insurers to maintain a prescribed minimum solvency margin to ensure they have sufficient financial resources to meet their policyholder obligations, including claims.
Statement 3 is incorrect: IRDAI regulates insurance products and premiums within the applicable legal framework, but it does not directly fix prices and cap premiums for all personal-line general insurance products through statutory administrative orders. Premium regulation varies by product and applicable regulatory provisions.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, is/are correct?
1. The Act aims to protect personal data while permitting its processing for lawful purposes.
2. It balances the Right to Privacy under Article 21 with transparency under the RTI Act, 2005.
3. The Data Protection Board of India enforces compliance, investigates complaints and imposes penalties.
4. It prohibits cross-border data transfers under all circumstances.
1. The Act aims to protect personal data while permitting its processing for lawful purposes.
2. It balances the Right to Privacy under Article 21 with transparency under the RTI Act, 2005.
3. The Data Protection Board of India enforces compliance, investigates complaints and imposes penalties.
4. It prohibits cross-border data transfers under all circumstances.
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Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is Correct: The Preamble of the DPDP Act, 2023, aims to protect individuals’ digital personal data while permitting its processing for lawful purposes. It seeks to balance the individual’s right to protect personal data with the need for legitimate data processing.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Act seeks to balance the Right to Privacy under Article 21 with transparency and access to public information. The Supreme Court recognised privacy as a fundamental right in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017). Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act amends Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005, relating to the disclosure of personal information.
Statement 3 is Correct: Section 18 provides for the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI). It functions as the adjudicatory body under the Act, handling complaints, inquiring into non-compliance, issuing directions and imposing monetary penalties for violations.
Statement 4 is Incorrect: Section 16 does not prohibit all cross-border data transfers. It permits the transfer of personal data outside India, subject to restrictions imposed by the Central Government on transfers to specified countries or territories.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is Correct: The Preamble of the DPDP Act, 2023, aims to protect individuals’ digital personal data while permitting its processing for lawful purposes. It seeks to balance the individual’s right to protect personal data with the need for legitimate data processing.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Act seeks to balance the Right to Privacy under Article 21 with transparency and access to public information. The Supreme Court recognised privacy as a fundamental right in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017). Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act amends Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005, relating to the disclosure of personal information.
Statement 3 is Correct: Section 18 provides for the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI). It functions as the adjudicatory body under the Act, handling complaints, inquiring into non-compliance, issuing directions and imposing monetary penalties for violations.
Statement 4 is Incorrect: Section 16 does not prohibit all cross-border data transfers. It permits the transfer of personal data outside India, subject to restrictions imposed by the Central Government on transfers to specified countries or territories.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
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HYDERACENE is an indigenous polymer-based material developed for use in solid rocket propellants for defence and space applications.
Important for UPSC: Science & Technology → Polymer Science → Solid Rocket Propellants → Burn-Rate Catalysts → Defence Technology → Space Technology → Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
Important for UPSC: Science & Technology → Polymer Science → Solid Rocket Propellants → Burn-Rate Catalysts → Defence Technology → Space Technology → Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
Consider the following statements regarding the powers and functions of the NCLT:
1. It handles cases related to class action suits filed by members or depositors of a company.
2. It has the jurisdiction to hear matters concerning the oppression and mismanagement of companies.
3. It can initiate criminal prosecution and impose imprisonment terms on company directors independently.
1. It handles cases related to class action suits filed by members or depositors of a company.
2. It has the jurisdiction to hear matters concerning the oppression and mismanagement of companies.
3. It can initiate criminal prosecution and impose imprisonment terms on company directors independently.
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Answer: (A)
Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 245 of the Companies Act, 2013, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has the power to entertain class action suits. Members or depositors can file an application on behalf of affected persons against the company, its directors, auditors, or experts for fraudulent, unlawful, or wrongful acts.
Statement 2 is correct: The NCLT is the primary quasi-judicial body with exclusive jurisdiction to hear and decide cases pertaining to oppression and mismanagement of companies under Sections 241 and 242 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The NCLT is a quasi-judicial body and does not have independent jurisdiction to initiate criminal trials or impose sentences of imprisonment. Penalties involving criminal liability and imprisonment under the Companies Act are adjudicated by designated Special Courts (criminal courts) set up under the Act, following criminal trial procedures.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 245 of the Companies Act, 2013, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has the power to entertain class action suits. Members or depositors can file an application on behalf of affected persons against the company, its directors, auditors, or experts for fraudulent, unlawful, or wrongful acts.
Statement 2 is correct: The NCLT is the primary quasi-judicial body with exclusive jurisdiction to hear and decide cases pertaining to oppression and mismanagement of companies under Sections 241 and 242 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The NCLT is a quasi-judicial body and does not have independent jurisdiction to initiate criminal trials or impose sentences of imprisonment. Penalties involving criminal liability and imprisonment under the Companies Act are adjudicated by designated Special Courts (criminal courts) set up under the Act, following criminal trial procedures.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
With reference to the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV), consider the following statements:
1. The first stage of GSLV utilizes a solid rocket motor augmented by four liquid strap-ons.
2. The second stage of GSLV is powered by a cryogenic engine using liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen.
3. GSLV has a higher payload capacity to Sun Synchronous Orbits (SSO) than to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits (GTO).
1. The first stage of GSLV utilizes a solid rocket motor augmented by four liquid strap-ons.
2. The second stage of GSLV is powered by a cryogenic engine using liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen.
3. GSLV has a higher payload capacity to Sun Synchronous Orbits (SSO) than to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits (GTO).
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Answer: (B)
Statement 1 is correct: The first stage of the GSLV consists of a solid rocket motor (S139) augmented by four liquid strap-ons using hypergolic propellants.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The cryogenic engine (CE-7.5) forms the third (upper) stage of the GSLV, not the second stage. The second stage utilizes a liquid stage powered by the Vikas engine (fueling UH25 + 𝑁 ).
Statement 3 is correct: According to technical specifications, GSLV's payload capacity is 2,250 kg for Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits (GTO), whereas it can carry up to 3,000 kg into Sun-Synchronous Orbits (SSO).
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The first stage of the GSLV consists of a solid rocket motor (S139) augmented by four liquid strap-ons using hypergolic propellants.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The cryogenic engine (CE-7.5) forms the third (upper) stage of the GSLV, not the second stage. The second stage utilizes a liquid stage powered by the Vikas engine (fueling UH25 + 𝑁 ).
Statement 3 is correct: According to technical specifications, GSLV's payload capacity is 2,250 kg for Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits (GTO), whereas it can carry up to 3,000 kg into Sun-Synchronous Orbits (SSO).
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with regard to INS Tarkash is/are correct?
1. INS Tarkash is a Talwar-class stealth frigate of the Indian Navy.
2. Talwar-class frigates are guided-missile frigates designed for multiple naval warfare roles.
3. Stealth technology makes a warship completely invisible to all detection systems.
1. INS Tarkash is a Talwar-class stealth frigate of the Indian Navy.
2. Talwar-class frigates are guided-missile frigates designed for multiple naval warfare roles.
3. Stealth technology makes a warship completely invisible to all detection systems.
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Answer: (B)
INS Tarkash is a Talwar-class stealth guided-missile frigate of the Indian Navy. It was built in Russia and commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2012. It is designed to perform multiple naval operations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Talwar-class frigates are guided-missile warships designed to undertake multiple roles, including anti-surface warfare, anti-aircraft warfare and anti-submarine warfare. They are equipped with different weapons and surveillance systems to address threats from air, surface and underwater domains. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Stealth technology does not make a warship completely invisible. Instead, it reduces its chances of detection by minimising its radar cross-section through specialised structural design and the use of radar-absorbing materials. However, stealth objects can still be detected using suitable sensors and detection techniques. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
INS Tarkash is a Talwar-class stealth guided-missile frigate of the Indian Navy. It was built in Russia and commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2012. It is designed to perform multiple naval operations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Talwar-class frigates are guided-missile warships designed to undertake multiple roles, including anti-surface warfare, anti-aircraft warfare and anti-submarine warfare. They are equipped with different weapons and surveillance systems to address threats from air, surface and underwater domains. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Stealth technology does not make a warship completely invisible. Instead, it reduces its chances of detection by minimising its radar cross-section through specialised structural design and the use of radar-absorbing materials. However, stealth objects can still be detected using suitable sensors and detection techniques. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the BharatNet Project, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to provide broadband connectivity to all Gram Panchayats in India through Optical Fibre Cable (OFC) networks.
2. The project is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
3. Under the Amended BharatNet Programme, optical fibre connectivity is envisaged for Gram Panchayats in a ring topology, along with connectivity to non-GP villages on demand.
1. It aims to provide broadband connectivity to all Gram Panchayats in India through Optical Fibre Cable (OFC) networks.
2. The project is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
3. Under the Amended BharatNet Programme, optical fibre connectivity is envisaged for Gram Panchayats in a ring topology, along with connectivity to non-GP villages on demand.
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