8. Under the maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, a maintenance Tribunal is empowered to order a person’s children or relatives to pay a monthly allowance for the maintenance of a senior citizen or parent unable to maintain themselves. Which of the following best describes the nature of the proceedings before such a Tribunal ?
A) The proceedings are purely criminal in nature, and any failure to pay the ordered maintenance is punishable only by a fine, with no provision for imprisonment.
B) The Tribunal follows the complete procedure of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in every respect, exactly as a Civil Court would in an ordinary civil suit.
C) The proceedings are designed to be summary in nature, enabling a relatively simple and speedy inquiry and disposal, so that an elderly applicant is not subjected to the delays of ordinary civil litigation.
D) The Tribunal has no power to grant any interim relief, and can only pass a final order for maintenance after the entire inquiry is concluded.

9. E-governance initiatives are commonly classified according to the relationship between the parties involved in service delivery, such as Government-to-Citizen (G2C), Government-to-Government (G2G), Government-to-Business (G2B), and Government-to-Employee (G2E). An online portal through which a State’s Treasury department electronically transfers pension and salary-related data directly to the Accountant General’s office for audit would best be classified under which category ?
A) Government-to-Citizen (G2C), since the transaction ultimately benefits an individual pensioner.
B) Government-to-Business (G2B), since the Accountant General’s office functions as a private business entity.
C) Government-to-Employee (G2E), since the transaction concerns salary data.
D) Government-to-Government (G2G), since the transaction is an exchange of data and services between two government departments or agencies

10. A State Government department has, for several years, consistently followed a published policy of granting a specific category of licence renewal automatically upon submission of a renewal application, without further scrutiny, provided the applicant has not been found in default. It now proposes to deviate from this consistent practice for one specific applicant, without prior notice, even though that applicant has not been found in default. Which principle of administrative law is most directly relevant to examining the validity of this proposed deviation ?
A) The doctrine of legitimate expectation, under which a person may be entitled to a fair hearing or a reasonable justification before a public authority departs, to that person’s detriment, from an established and consistent practice or representation.
B) The doctrine of sovereign immunity, under which the State cannot be compelled to follow any of its own previous administrative practices.
C) The doctrine of res judicata, under which the department’s earlier renewals in other cases operate as a final adjudication binding on all future applicants.
d) The doctrine of eminent domain, under which the State may deviate from its own policy in the public interest without any procedural safeguard.

Do not panic on seeing long statements. If you read these statements carefully, you can find the answers very easily. ☝️These questions were asked in the SBCID Mains exam. Practice more statement-based questions for the upcoming exams.

1. According to the Sustainable development Report 2026 (UN Sustainable development
Solutions Network), India’s overall SdG Index score showed its fastest improvement in a decade, moving up in the global ranking. Which of the following best reflects a further finding of the same report regarding India’s progress ?
A) India’s improvement in its overall score means that all 17 Sustainable development Goals are equally on track to be achieved by the 2030 deadline.
B) India’s improvement in its overall score has occurred despite continuing to face its most critical challenges on specific goals such as zero Hunger, reflecting uneven progress across different goals.
C) India’s overall score improved solely because of progress on Goal 16 (Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions), while all other goals showed no change.
d) India’s ranking improved only relative to other South Asian countries, while it fell in the global ranking as a whole.

2. The monetary Policy Committee (mPC) of the Reserve Bank of India, which kept the policy repo rate unchanged through most of 2026 while maintaining a ‘neutral’ stance, is structured as a six-member body comprising RBI officials and external members nominated by the Government of India. Which of the following best explains the institutional rationale for including external, non-RBI members on the mPC ?
A) To ensure that RBI officials retain a permanent majority, so that external members can never Influence the outcome of a vote.
B) To transfer the final decision-making power over the repo rate entirely from the RBI Governor to the external members.
C) To bring in independent expertise and diverse perspectives into monetary policy decisions, rather than leaving interest-rate decisions to be determined solely by the internal view of the Central Bank.
d) To ensure that monetary policy decisions are made in exact conformity with the fiscal policy announced in the Union Budget each year.